(Test Bank) Current Medical Diagnosis And Treatment

Papadakis,Mcphee, 59

Nursing

Test Bank

59th Edition

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Test Bank for Current Medical Diagnosis And Treatment, The downloadable file consists of 444 pages, and the total size of the file is 3.21 MB. Purchase now only for highly discounted price.

Author(s): Papadakis, Mcphee

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CURRENT Medical Diagnosis and Treatment 2019 Testbank/Studyguide Chapter 1. Disease Prevention & Health Promotion 1. Which of the following behaviors indicates the highest potential for spreading infections among clients? The nurse: 1) disinfects dirty hands with antibacterial soap. 2) allows alcohol -based rub to dry for 10 seconds. 3) washes hands only after leaving each room. 4) uses cold water for medical asepsis. 2. What is the most frequent cause of the spread of infection among institutionalized patients? 1) Airborne microbes from other patients 2) Contact with contaminated equipment 3) Hands of healthcare workers 4) Exposure from family members 3. Which of the following nursing activities is of highest priority for maintaining medical asepsis? 1) Washing hands 2) Donning gloves 3) Applying sterile drapes 4) Wearing a gown 4. A patient infected with a virus but who does not have any outward sign of the disease is considered a: 1) pathogen. 2) fomite. 3) vector. 4) carrier. 5. A patient is admitted to the hospital with tuberculosis. Which precautions must the nurse institute when caring for this patient? 1) Droplet transmission 2) Airborne transmission 3) Direct contact 4) Indirect contact 6. A patient becomes infected with oral candidiasis (thrush) while receiving intravenous antibiotics to treat a systemic infection. Which type of infection has the patient developed? 1) Endogenous nosocomial 2) Exogenous nosocomial 3) Latent 4) Primary 7. A patient admitted to the hospital with pneumonia has been receiving antibiotics for 2 days. His condition has stabilized, and his temperature has returned to normal. Which stage of infection is the patient most likely experiencing? 1) Incubation 2) Prodromal 3) Decline 4) Convalescence 8. The nurse assists a surgeon with central venous catheter insertion. Which action is necessary to help maintain sterile technique? 1) Closing the patients door to limit room traffic while preparing the sterile field 2) Using clean procedure gloves to handle sterile equipment 3) Placing the nonsterile syringes containing flush solution on the sterile field 4) Remaining 6 inches away from the sterile field during the procedure 9. A patient develops localized heat and erythema over an area on the lower leg. These findings are indicative of which secondary defense against infection? 1) Phagocytosis 2) Complement cascade 3) Inflammation 4) Immunity 10. The patient suddenly develops hives, shortness of breath, and wheezing after receiving an antibiotic. Which antibody is primarily responsible for this patients response? 1) IgA 2) IgE 3) IgG 4) IgM 11. What type of immunity is provided by intravenous (IV) administration of immunoglobulin G? 1) Cell-mediated 2) Passive 3) Humoral 4) Active 12. A patient asks the nurse why there is no vaccine available for the common cold. Which response by the nurse is correct? 1) The virus mutates too rapidly to develop a vaccine. 2) Vaccines are developed only for very serious illnesses. 3) Researchers are focusing efforts on an HIV vaccine. 4) 13 The virus for the common cold has not been identified. . A patient who has a temperature of 101F (38.3C) most likely requires: 1) acetaminophen (Tylenol). 2) increased fluids. 3) bedrest. 4) tepid bath. 14. Why is a lotion without petroleum preferred over a petroleum -based product as a skin protectant? It: 1) Prevents microorganisms from adhering to the skin. 2) Facilitates the absorption of latex proteins through the skin. 3) Decreases the risk of latex allergies. 4) Prevents the skin from drying and chaffing. 15. For which range of time must a nurse wash her hands before working in the operating room? 1) 1 to 2 minutes 2) 2 to 4 minutes 3) 2 to 6 minutes 4) 6 to 10 minutes 16. How should the nurse dispose of the breakfast tray of a patient who requires airborne isolation? 1) Place the tray in a specially marked trash can inside the patients room. 2) Place the tray in a special isolation bag held by a second healthcare worker at the patients door. 3) Return the tray with a note to dietary services so it can be cleaned and reused for the next meal. 4) 17 Carry the tray to an isolation trash receptacle located in the dirty utility room and dispose of it there. . How much liquid soap should the nurse use for effective hand washing? At least: 1) 2 mL 2) 3 mL 3) 6 mL 4) 7 mL 18. To assure effectiveness, when should the nurse stop rubbing antiseptic hand solution over all surfaces of the hands? 1) When fingers feel sticky 2) After 5 to 10 seconds 3) When leaving the clients room 4) Once fingers and hands feel dry 19. A patient is admitted to the hospital for chemotherapy and has a low white blood cell count. Which precaution should the staff take with this patient? 1) Contact 2) Protective 3) Droplet 4) Airborne 20. While donning sterile gloves, the nurse notices the edges of the glove package are slightly yellow. The yellow area is over 1 inch away from the gloves and only appears to be on the outside of the glove package. What is the best action for the nurse to take at this point? 1) Continue using the gloves inside the package because the packag e is intact. 2) Remove gloves from sterile field and use a new pair of sterile gloves. 3) Throw all supplies away that were to be used and begin again. 4) Use the gloves and make sure the yellow edges of the package do not touch the client. 21. The nurse is removing personal protective equipment (PPE). Which item should be removed first? 1) Gown 2) Gloves 3) Face shield 4) Hair covering 22. A nurse is splashed in the face by body fluid during a procedure. Prioritize the nurses actions, listing the most important one first. A. Contact employee health B. Complete an incident report C. Wash the exposed area D. Report to another nurse that she is leaving the immediate area. 1) 1, 2, 3, 4 2) 2, 3, 4, 1 3) 3, 4, 1, 2 4) 4, 1, 2, 3 Multiple Response Identify one or more choices that best complete the statement or answer the question. 1. In which situation would using standard precautions be adequate? Select all that apply. 1) While interviewing a client with a productive cough 2) While helping a client to perform his own hygiene care 3) While aiding a client to ambulate after surgery 4) While inserting a peripheral intravenous catheter 2. Which of the following protect(s) the body against infection? Select all that apply. 1) Eating a healthy well-balanced diet 2) Being an older adult or an infant 3) Leisure activities three times a week 4) Exercising for 30 minutes 5 days a week 3. The nurse is teaching a group of newly hired nursing assistive personnel (NAP) about proper hand washing. The nurse will know that the teaching was effective if the NAP demonstrate what? Select all that apply. The NAP: 1) uses a paper towel to turn off the faucet. 2) holds fingertips above the wrists while rinsing off the soap. 3) removes all rings and watch before washing hands. 4) cleans underneath each fingernail. 4. Alcohol -based solutions for hand hygiene can be used to combat which types of organisms? Select all that apply. 1) Virus 2) Bacterial spores 3) Yeast 4) Mold 5. A patient with tuberculosis is scheduled for computed tomography (CT). How should the nurse proceed? Select all that apply. 1) Question the order because the patient must remain in isolation. 2) Place an N-95 respirator mask on the patient and transport him to the test. 3) Place a surgical mask on the patient and transport him to CT lab. 4) Notify the computed tomography department about precautions prior to transport. True/False Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Bacteria are necessary for human health and well-being. Chapter 1. Disease prevention Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. ANS: 3 Patients acquire infection by contact with other patients, family members, and healthcare equipment. But most infection among patients is spread through the hands of healthcare workers. Hand washing interrupts the transmission and should be done before and after all contact with patients, regardless of the diagnosis. When the hands are soiled, healthcare staff should use antibacterial soap with warm water to remove dirt and debris from the skin surface. When no visible dirt is present, an alco hol-based rub should be applied and allowed to dry for 10 to 15 seconds. 2. ANS: 3 Patients are exposed to microbes by contact (direct contact, airborne, or otherwise) with other patients, family members, and contaminated healthcare equipment. Some of these are pathogenic (cause illness) and some are nonpathogenic (do not cause illness). But most microbes causing infection among patients are spread by direct contact on the hands of healthcare workers. 3. ANS: 1 Scrupulous hand washing is the most important part of medical asepsis. Donning gloves, applying sterile drapes before procedures, and wearing a protective gown may be needed to ensure asepsis, but they are not the most important aspect because microbes causing most healthcare -related infectio ns are transmitted by lack of or ineffective hand washing. 4. ANS: 4 Some people might harbor a pathogenic organism, such as the human immunodeficiency virus within their body, and yet do not acquire the disease/infection. These individuals, called carriers, have no outward sign of active disease, yet they can pass the infection to others. A pathogen is an organism capable of causing disease. A fomite is a contaminated object that transfers a pathogen, such as pens, stethoscopes, and contaminated needles. A ve ctor is an organism that carries a pathogen to a susceptible host through a portal for entry into the body. An example of a vector is a mosquito or tick that bites or stings. 5. ANS: 2 The organisms responsible for measles and tuberculosis, as well as many fungal infections, are spread through airborne transmission. Neisseria meningitidis, the organism that causes meningitis, is spread through droplet transmission. Pathogens that cause diarrhea, such as Clostridium difficile, are spread by direct contact. Th e common cold can be spread by indirect contact or droplet transmission. 6. ANS: 1 Thrush in this patient is an example of an endogenous, nosocomial infection. This type of infection arises from suppression of the patients normal flora as a result of some form of treatment, such as antibiotics. Normal flora usually keep yeast from growing in the mouth. In exogenous nosocomial infection, the pathogen arises from the healthcare environment. A latent infection causes no symptoms for long periods. An example of a latent infection is human immunodeficiency virus infection. A primary infection is the first infection that occurs in a patient. 7. ANS: 3 The stage of decline occurs when t he patients immune defenses, along with any medical therapies (in this case antibiotics), are successfully reducing the number of pathogenic microbes. As a result, the signs and symptoms of infection begin to fade. Incubation is the stage between the invas ion by the organism and the onset of symptoms. During the incubation stage, the patient does not know he is infected and is capable of infecting others. The prodromal stage is characterized by the first appearance of vague symptoms. Convalescence is characterized by tissue repair and a return to heal as the organisms disappear. 8. ANS: 1 To maintain sterile technique, the nurse should close the patients door and limit the number of persons entering and exiting the room because air currents can carry dust and microorganisms. Sterile gloves, not clean gloves, should be used to handle sterile equipment. Placing nonsterile syringes on the sterile field contaminates the field. One foot, not 6 inches, is required between people and the sterile field to prevent contamination. 9. ANS: 3 The classic signs of inflammation, a secondary defense against infection, are erythema (redness) and localized heat. The secondary defenses phagocytosis (process by which white blood cells engulf and destroy pathogens) and the complement cascade (process by which blood proteins trigger the release of chemicals that attack the cell membranes of pathog ens) do not produce visible findings. Immunity is a tertiary defense that protects the body from future infection. 10. ANS: 2 The patient is most likely experiencing an allergic response to the antibiotic. IgE is the antibody primarily responsible for this allergic response. The antibodies IgA, IgG, and IgM are not involved in the allergic response. IgA antibodies protect the body from in fighting viral and bacterial infections. IgG antibioties are the only type that cross the placenta in a pregnant women to protect her unborn baby (fetus). IgM are the first antibodies made in response to infection. 11. ANS: 2 Intravenous administration of immunoglobulin G provides the patient with passive immunity. Immunoglobulin G does not provide cell -mediated, humoral, or active immunity. Passive immunity occurs when antibodies are transferred by antibodies from an immune host, such as from a placenta to a fetus. Passive immunity is short -lived. Active immunity is longer lived and comes from the host itself. Humoral immunity occurs by secreted antibodies binding to antigens. Cell-mediated immunity does not involve antibodies but rather fight infection from macrophages that kills pathogens. 12. ANS: 1 More than 200 viruses are known to cause the common cold. These viruses mutate too rapidly to develop a vaccine. Although some researchers are focusing efforts on a vaccine for HIV infection, others continue to research the common cold. 13. ANS: 2 Fever, a co mmon defense against infection, increases water loss; therefore, additional fluid is needed to supplement this loss. Acetaminophen and a tepid bath are not necessary for this low - grade fever because fever is beneficial in fighting infection. Adequate rest , not necessarily bedrest, is necessary with a fever. 14. ANS: 3 Nonpetroleum -based lotion is preferred because it prevents the absorption of latex proteins through the skin, which can cause latex allergy. Both types of lotion prevent the skin from drying and becoming chafed. Neither prevents microorganisms from adhering to the skin. 15. ANS: 3 In a surgical setting, hands should be washed for 2 to 6 minutes, depending on the type of soap used. 16. ANS: 2 Patients who require airborne isolation are served meals on disposable dishes and trays. To dispose of the tray, the nurse inside the room must wear protective garb and place the tray and its contents inside a special isolation bag that is he ld by a second healthcare worker at the patients door. The items must be placed on the inside of the bag without touching the outside of the bag. 17. ANS: 2 APIC guidelines dictate that 3 to 5 mL of liquid soap is necessary for effective hand washing. 18. ANS: 4 The nurse should rub the antiseptic hand solution over all surfaces of the hands until the solution dries, usually 10 to 15 seconds, to ensure effectiveness. 19. ANS: 2 Protective isolation is used to protect those patients who are unusually vulnerable to orga nisms brought in by healthcare workers. Such patients include those with low white blood cell counts, with burns, and undergoing chemotherapy. Some hospital units, such as neonatal intensive care units and labor and delivery suites, also use forms of protective isolation. 20. ANS: 2 The gloves should be thrown away because the gloves are likely to be contaminated from an outside source. The supplies do not have to be thrown away because they have not been contaminated. 21. ANS: 2 The gloves are removed first b ecause they are usually the most contaminated PPE and must be removed to avoid contamination of clean areas of the other PPE during their removal. The gown is removed second, then the mask or face shield, and finally, the hair covering. 22. ANS: 3 If a nurse becomes exposed to body fluid, she should first wash the area, tell another nurse she is leaving the area, contact the infection control or employee health nurse immediately, and complete an incident report. It is most important to remove the source of contamination (body fluid) as soon as possible after exposure to help prevent the nurses from becoming infected. The other activities can wait until that is done. MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. ANS: 3, 4 Standard precautions should be instituted with all clients whenever there is a possibility of coming in contact with blood, body fluids (except sweat), excretions, secretions, mucous membranes, and breaks in the skin (e.g., while inserting a pe ripheral IV). When interviewing a client, if the disease is not spread by air or droplets, there is no likelihood of the nurses encountering body fluids. If the disease is spread by air or droplets, then droplet or airborne precautions would be needed in a ddition to standard precautions. If giving a complete bed bath or performing oral hygiene, the nurse would need to use standard precautions (gloves); if merely assisting a client to perform those ADLs, it is not necessary. No exposure to body fluids is lik ely when helping a client to ambulate after surgery. 2. ANS: 1, 3, 4 Nutrition, hygiene, rest, exercise, stress reduction, and immunization protect the body against infection. Illness, injury, medical treatment, infancy or old age, frequent public contact, and various lifestyle factors can make the body more susceptible to infection. 3. ANS: 1, 3, 4 Hand washing requires at least 15 seconds of washing, which includes lathering all surfaces of the hands and fingers to be effective. The fingers should be held lower than the wrists. 4. ANS: 1, 3, 4 If there is potential for contact with bacterial spores, hands must be washed with soap and water; alcohol -based solutions are ineffective against bacterial spores. 5. ANS: 3, 4 Transporting a patient who requires airborne precautions should be limited; however, when necessary the patient should wear a surgical mask (an N -95 respirator mask is not requi red) that covers the mouth and nose to prevent the spread of infection. Moreover, the department where the patient is being transported should be notified about the precautions before transport. TRUE/FALSE 1. ANS: T Organisms that normally inhabit the body, called normal flora, are essential for human health and well-being. They keep pathogens in check. In the intestine, these flora function to aid digestion and promote the release of vitamin K, vitamin B12, thiamine, and riboflavin. Chapter 1 Health Promotion (Part 2) 1. A client informs the nurse that he has quit smoking because his father died from lung cancer 3 months ago. Based on his motivation, smoking cessation should be recognized as an example of which of the following? 1) Healthy living 2) Health promotion 3) Wellness behaviors 4) Health protection 2. A patient with morbid obesity was enrolled in a weight loss program last month and has attended four weekly meetings. But now he believes he no longer needs to attend meetings because he has learned what to do. He informs the nurse facilitator about his decision to quit the program. What should the nurse tell him? 1) By now you have success fully completed the steps of the change process. You should be able to successfully lose the rest of the weight on your own. 2) Although you have learned some healthy habits, you will need at least another 6 weeks before you can quit the program and have success. 3) You have done well in this program. However, it is important to continue in the program to learn how to maintain weight loss. Otherwise, you are likely to return to your previous lifestyle. 4) You have entered the determination stage and are ready to make positive changes that you can keep for the rest of your life. If you need additional help, you can come back at a later time. 3. The school nurse at a local elementary school is performing physical fitness assessments on the third -grade children. When assessing students cardiorespiratory fitness, the most appropriate test is to have the students: 1) Step up and down on a 12-inch bench. 2) Perform the sit-and-reach test. 3) Run a mile without stopping, if they can. 4) Perform range -of-motion exercises. 4. In the Leavell and Clark model of health protection, the chief distinction between the levels of prevention is: 1) The point in the disease process at which they occur. 2) Placement on the Wheels of Wellness. 3) The level of activity required to achieve them. 4) Placement in the Model of Change. 5. The muscle strength of a woman weighing 132 pounds who is able to lift 72 pounds would be recorded as which of the following? 1) 1.83 2) Moderate 3) 0.55 4) 18.3% 6. Which is one of the greatest concerns with heavy and chronic use of alcohol in teens and young adults? 1) Liver damage 2) Unintentional death 3) Tobacco use 4) Obesity 7. A 55 -year-old man suffered a myocardial infarction (heart attack) three months ago. During his hospitalization, he had stents inserted in two locations in the coronary arteries. He was also placed on a cholesterol -lowering agent and two antihypertensives. What type of care is he receiving? 1) Primary prevention 2) Secondary prevention 3) Tertiary prevention 4) 8. Health promotion Health screening activities are designed to: 1) Detect disease at an early stage. 2) Determine treatment options. 3) Assess lifestyle habits. 4) 9. Identify healthcare beliefs. Which individuals should receive annual lipid screening? 1) All overweight children 2) All adults 20 years and older 3) Persons with total cholesterol greater than 150 mg/dL 4) Persons with HDL less than 40 mg/dL 10. A mother of three young children is newly diagnosed with breast cancer. She is intensely committed to fighting the cancer. She believes she can control her cancer to some degree with a positive attitude and feelings of inner strength. Which of the following traits is she demonstrating that is linked to health and healing? 1) Invincibility 2) Hardiness 3) Baseline strength 4) Vulnerability Multiple Response Identify one or more choices that best complete the statement or answer the question. 1. The World Health Organizations definition of health includes which of the following? Choose all that apply. 1) Absence of disease 2) Physical well-being 3) Mental well-being 4) Social well-being 2. According to Penders health promotion model, which variables must be considered when planning a health promotion program for a client? Choose all that apply. 1) Individual characteristics and experiences 2) Levels of prevention 3) Behavioral outcomes 4) Behavior -specific cognitions and affect 3. Goals for Healthy People 2020 include which of the following? Choose all that apply. 1) Eliminate health disparities among various groups. 2) Decrease the cost of healthcare related to tobacco use. 3) Increase the quality and years of healthy life. 4) Decrease the number of inpatient days annually. 4. The nurse is implementing a wellness program based on data gathered from a group of low-income seniors living in a housing project. He is using the Wheels of Wellness as a model for his planned interventions. Which of the following interventions would be appropriate based on this model? Choose all that apply. 1) Creating a weekly discussion group focused on contemporary news 2) Facilitating a relationship between local pastors and residents of subsidized housing 3) Coordinating a senior tutorial program for local children at the housing center 4) Establishing an on-site healthcare clinic operating one day per week 5. The nurse working in an ambulatory care program asks questions about the clients locus of control as a part of his assessment because of which of the following? Choose all that apply. 1) People who feel in charge of their own health are the easiest to motivate toward change. 2) People who feel powerless about preventing illness are least likely to engage in health promotion activities. 3) People who respond to direction from respected authorities often prefer a health promotion program that is supervised by a health provider. 4) People who feel in charge of their own health are less motivated by health promotion activities. 6. Health promotion programs assist a person to advance toward optimal health. Which of the following activities might such programs include? Choose all that apply. 1) Disseminating information 2) Changing lifestyle and behavior 3) Prescribing medications to treat underlying disorders 4) 7. Environmental control programs Which of the following actions demonstrate how nurses promote health? 1) Role modeling 2) Educating patients and families 3) Counseling 4) Providing support Completion Complete each statement. 1. A middle -aged woman performs breast self-examination monthly. This intervention is considered to be prevention. 2. refers to nursing actions performed to help clients to achieve an optimal state of health. 3. What is the name of the nursing theorist who defines health as having three elements: a high level of overall physical, mental, and so cial functioning; a general adaptive -maintenance level of daily functioning; and the absence of illness (or the presence of efforts that lead to its absence)? Chapter 1. Health Promotion (Part 2) Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. ANS: 4 Although health promotion and health protection may involve the same activities, their difference lies in the motivation for action. Health protection is motivated by a desire to avoid illness. Health promotion is motivated by the desire to increase wellness. Smoking cess ation may also be a wellness behavior and may be considered a step toward healthy living; however, neither of these addresses motivation for action. Comprehension 2. ANS: 3 Prochaska and Diclemente identified four stages of change: the contemplation stage, th e determination stage, the action stage, and the maintenance stage. This patient demonstrates behaviors typical of the action stage. If a participant exits a program before the end of the maintenance stage, relapse is likely to occur as the individual resumes his previous life style. 3. ANS: 3 Field tests for running are good for children and can be utilized when assessing cardiorespiratory fitness. The step test is appropriate for adults. The 12 -inch bench height is too high for young children. The sit -and-reach test as well as range -of-motion exercises would be appropriate when assessing flexibility. 4. ANS: 1 Leavell and Clark identified three levels of activities for health protection: primary, secondary, and tertiary. Interventions are classified according to the point in the disease process in which they occur. 5. ANS: 3 Muscle strength measures the amount of weight a muscle (or group of muscles) can move at one time. This is recorded as a ratio of weight pushed (or lifted) divided by body weight. A woman weighing 132 pounds who is able to lift 72 pounds has a ratio of 72 divided by 132, or 0.55. 6. ANS: 2 Heavy and chronic use of alcohol and use of illicit drugs inc rease the risk of disease and injuries and intentional death (suicide and homicide). Although alcohol as a depressant slows metabolism, chronic alcohol use is more likely associated with poor nutrition, which may or may not lead to obesity. Chronic alcohol use causes damage to liver cells over time in the later years. Alcohol intake is often associated with tobacco and recreational drug use; however, the risk of unintentional injury, such as car accident, suicide, or violence, is more concerning than smoking. 7. ANS: 3 Primary prevention activities are designed to prevent or slow the onset of disease. Activities such as eating healthy foods, exercising, wearing sunscreen, obeying seat -belt laws, and getting immunizations are examples of primary level interventions. Secondary prevention activities detect illness so it can be treated in the early stages. Tertiary prevention focuses on stopping the disease from progressing and returning the individual to the pre -illness phase. Th e patient has an established disease and is receiving care to stop the disease from progressing. 8. ANS: 1 Health screening activities are designed to detect disease at an early stage so that treatment can begin before there is an opportunity for disease to spread or become debilitating. 9. ANS: 1 The American Academy of Pediatrics take a targeted approach, recommending that overweight children receive cholesterol screening, regardless of family history or other risk factors for cardiovascular disease. The American Heart Association recommends that all adults age 20 years or older have a fasting lipid panel at least once every 5 years. If total cholesterol is 200 mg/dL or greateror HDL is less than 40 mg/dLfrequent monitoring is required. 10. ANS: 2 Research has also demonstrated that in the face of difficult life events, some people develop hardiness rather than vulnerability. Hardiness is a quality in which an individual experiences high levels of stress yet does not fall ill. There are three general characteristics of the hardy person: control (belief in the ability to control the experience), commitment (feeling deeply involved in the activity producing stress), and challenge (the ability to view the change as a challenge to grow). These traits are associated with a strong resistance to negative feelings that occur under adverse circumstances. MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. ANS: 2, 3, 4 The World Health Organization defines health as a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being, not merely the absence of disease of infirmity. 2. ANS: 1, 3, 4 Pender identified three variables that affect health promotion: individual characte ristics and experiences, behavior -specific cognitions and affect, and behavioral outcomes. Levels of prevention were identified by Leavell and Clark; three levels relate to health protection. The levels differ based on their timing in the illness cycle. 3. ANS: 1, 3 The four overarching goals of Healthy People 2020 are to 1) increase the quality and years of healthy life, free of disease, injury, and premature death, 2) eliminate health disparities and improve health for all groups of people, 3) create phys ical and social environments for people to live a healthy life, and 4) promote healthy development for people in all stages of life. 4. ANS: 1, 2, 3, 4 The Wheels of Wellness model identifies the following dimensions of health: emotional, intellectual, physical, spiritual, social/family, and occupational. A weekly discussion group stimulates intellectual health. A relationship between local pastors and those living in subsidized housing creates a climate for spiritual health. A tutorial pro gram offered by seniors to local children will facilitate occupational health. An on -site healthcare clinic addresses physical health. 5. ANS: 1, 2, 3 Identifying a persons locus of control helps the nurse determine how to approach a client about health pr omotion. People who feel powerless about preventing illness are least likely to engage in health promotion activities. People who respond to direction from respected authorities often prefer a health promotion program that is supervised by a health provider. Clients who feel in charge of their own health are the easiest to motivate toward positive change. 6. ANS: 1, 2, 4 Health promotion programs may be categorized into four types: disseminating information; programs for changing lifestyle and behavior; environmental control programs; and wellness appraisal and health risk assessment programs. Prescribing medications to tr eat underlying disorders is an activity that fosters health focused at an individual level rather than at a group program level. 7. ANS: 1, 2, 3, 4 Nurses promote health by acting as role models, counseling, providing health education, and providing and facilitating support. 1. ANS: secondary Secondary prevention activities detect illness so that it can be treated in the early stages. Health activities such as mammograms, testicular examinations, regular physical examinations, blood pressure and diabetes screenings, and tuberculosis skin tests are examples of secondary interventions. Primary prevention activities are designed to prevent or slow the onset of disease and promote health. Activities such as eating healthy foods, exercising, wearing sunscreen, obeying seat -belt laws, and getting immunizations are examples of primary level interventions. Tertiary prevention focuses on stopping the disease from progressing and returning the individual to the pre-illness phase. Chapter 2. Common Symptoms 1. The nurse is listening to the breath sounds of a patient with severe asthma. Air passing through narrowed bronchioles would produce which of these adventitious sounds? a. Wheezes b. Bronchial sounds c. Bronchophony d. Whispered pectoriloquy ANS: A Wheezes are caused by air squeezed or compressed through passageways narrowed almost to closure by collapsing, swelling, secretions, or tumors, such as with acute asthma or chronic emphysema. 2. A mother brings her 3 -month -old infant to the clinic for evaluation of a cold. She tells the nurse that he has had a runny nose for a week. When performing the physical assessment, the nurse notes that the child has nasal flaring and sternal and intercostal retractions. The nurses next action should be to: a. Assure the mother that these signs are normal symptoms of a cold. b. Recognize that these are serious signs, and contact the physician. c. Ask the mother if the infant has had trouble with feedings. d. Perform a complete cardiac assessment because these signs are probably indicative of early heart failure. ANS: B The infant is an obligatory nose breather until the age of 3 months. Normally, no flaring of the nostrils and no sternal or intercostal retrac tion occurs. Significant retractions of the sternum and intercostal muscles and nasal flaring indicate increased inspiratory effort, as in pneumonia, acute airway obstruction, asthma, and atelectasis; therefore, immediate referral to the physician is warra nted. These signs do not indicate heart failure, and an assessment of the infants feeding is not a priority at this time. 3. A teenage patient comes to the emergency department with complaints of an inability to breathe and a sharp pain in the left side of h is chest. The assessment findings include cyanosis, tachypnea, tracheal deviation to the right, decreased tactile fremitus on the left, hyperresonance on the left, and decreased breath sounds on the left. The nurse interprets that these assessment findings are consistent with: a. Bronchitis. b. Pneumothorax. c. Acute pneumonia. d. Asthmatic attack. ANS: B With a pneumothorax, free air in the pleural space causes partial or complete lung collapse. If the pneumothorax is large, then tachypnea and cyanosis are evident. Unequal chest expansion, decreased or absent tactile fremitus, tracheal deviation to the unaffected side, decreased chest