(Test Bank) Merrill’s Atlas Of Radiographic Positioning And Procedures

Long, 14

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Test Bank

14th Edition

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Test Bank for Merrill’s Atlas Of Radiographic Positioning And Procedures, The downloadable file consists of 399 pages, and the total size of the file is 7.91 MB. Purchase now only for highly discounted price.

Author(s): Long

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Merrill’s Atlas of Radiographic Positioning and Procedures 14th Edition Long Test Bank Chapter 01: Preliminary Steps in Radiography Long: Merrill’s Atlas of Radiographic Positioning and Procedures, 14th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The Radiography Practice Standards are written and maintained by the: a. American Registry of Radiologic Technologists. b. American Medical Association. c. American Society of Radiologic Technologists. d. Joint Commission on Education in Radiologic Technology. ANS: C 2. The Standards of Ethics for radiographers was written and is maintained by the: a. American Registry of Radiologic Technologists. b. American Medical Association. c. American Society of Radiologic Technologists. d. Joint Commission on Education in Radiologic Technology. ANS: A 3. Radiographic images of the hands, wrist, feet, and toes are routinely displayed with the digits: a. positioned toward the ceiling. b. positioned toward the floor . c. horizontal and pointed to the left. d. horizontal and pointed to the right. ANS: A 4. How often should the radiographic tabletop be cleaned? a. Only when visibly soiled b. Weekly c. Daily d. After every procedure/patient ANS: D 5. The easiest and most convenient method of preventing the spread of microorganisms is: a. wearing PPE. b. following cough etiquette protocols. c. handwashing. d. proper handling of sharps. ANS: C 6. All are apparent abnormalities that could affect the radiographic result and should be recorded by the radiographer in the clinical history, except : a. tattoos with ferrous pigments. b. freckles and moles. c. swelling or masses. d. surface scars. ANS: B 7. Involuntary motion can be caused by which of the following? 1. Peristalsis 2. Spasm 3. Breathing a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A 8. Nervousness, discomfort, and fear are causes of: a. voluntary motion. b. involuntary motion. c. imaging procedure failure. d. image artifacts. ANS: A 9. Radiographers can control voluntary motion by: a. using a high kVp. b. increasing the length of exposure time. c. performing the examination in the recumbent position. d. giving clear instruction to the patient. ANS: D 10. Which type of accessory equipment reduces the amount of scatter and off-focus radiation that reaches the image receptor? a. Compensating filter b. Grid c. Sandbag d. Sponge ANS: B 11. Information that must be included on all radiographic images includes all of the following except : a. right or left side marker. b. patient’s name or ID number. c. radiographer’s name. d. date of exam. ANS: C 12. The metric conversion of 40 inches is cm. a. 16 b. 18 c. 90 d. 102 ANS: D 13. The simplest and most common shape of compensating filter is the: a. wedge. b. trough. c. double -wedge. d. Boomerang. ANS: A 14. All are guidelines for gonad shielding, except : a. the gonads lie in the primary beam. b. shielding is used when it will not compromise the exam objective. c. patients with reasonable reproductive potential should be shielded. d. gonad shields are only needed for pediatric patients. ANS: D 15. What is the most common image receptor general position? a. Diagonal b. Crosswise c. Lengthwise d. Vertical ANS: C 16. The central or principle beam of x-rays is termed the: a. center beam (CB). b. image beam (IB). c. central ray (CR). d. image receptor (IR). ANS: C 17. The general goal for central ray placement is: a. parallel with the structure of interest. b. perpendicular to the structure of interest. c. angled along the long axis of the part of interest. d. angled against the long axis of the part of interest. ANS: B 18. What term is defined as the distance from the anode focal spot inside the x -ray tube to the image receptor? a. Collimation b. Source -to-image receptor distance (SID) c. Central ray (CR) d. Image receptor (IR) ANS: B 19. All of the following are affected by the SID used for a radiographic image, except : a. spatial resolution. b. magnification of the anatomy in the image. c. patient dose. d. contrast resolution. ANS: D 20. The image receptor used in computed radiography IRs is a: a. tethered solid -state digital detector. b. wireless flat-panel detector. c. cassette with film. d. photostimulable storage phosphor imaging plate. ANS: D 21. Blood and body fluid recommendations are issued by the: a. CDC. b. ASRT. c. ARRT. d. JCAHO. ANS: A 22. Each radiology department must write age -specific competencies to meet the standards of the: a. CDC. b. ASRT. c. ARRT. d. JCAHO. ANS: D 23. Gonad shielding is required when the gonads lie within cm of the primary x -ray field. a. 3 b. 5 c. 6 d. 8 ANS: B 24. Which of the following radiographic examinations would give a male patient the highest gonad dose? a. Limb b. Skull c. Pelvis d. Lumbar spine ANS: C 25. Which of the following radiographic examinations would give a female patient the highest gonad dose? a. Limb b. Skull c. Pelvis d. Lumbar spine ANS: D 26. Which of the following is affected when imaging patients who are obese? 1. Image quality 2. Ability to transfer safely 3. Ability to find positioning landmarks a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 27. A fundamental responsibility of radiographers is to ensure that each radiation exposure upholds the ALARA concept. ALARA stands for: a. as low as reasonably achievable. b. as long as radiograph is acceptable. c. acceptable limits allowed for radiographic attempts. d. attempts to lessen all radiographic allowances. ANS: A 28. The source of radiation in an x-ray tube (the anode) shall not be closer than inches from the patient. a. 12 b. 15 c. 10 d. 18 ANS: A 29. A physician who is board certified to read or interpret, x-ray examinations is a: a. hospitalist. b. radiographer. c. radiologist. d. surgeon. ANS: C 30. Which term refers to restriction of the exposure field? a. Collimation b. Filter c. Shuttering d. Central ray (CR) ANS: A 31. Which side marker would be placed on the image receptor on the edge of the collimated field for a radiographic image of a patient with an injured right hand? a. The left (L) marker on the left side of the patient’s right hand b. The right (R) marker on the right side of the patient’s left hand c. The left (L) marker on either side of the patient’s hand d. The right (R) marker on either side of the patient’s hand ANS: D MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Radiographers who obtain additional education, clinical practice, and certification to provide advanced clinical imaging procedures are designated as which two of the following titles? (Select all that apply. ) a. Radiologist deputies (RD) b. Radiologist assistants (RA) c. Radiology practitioner assistants (RPA) d. Advanced radiography practitioners (ARP) ANS: B, C 2. Which two are the most common pre-exposure breathing instructions for radiographic procedures? (Select all that apply. ) a. Rapid, shallow breaths b. Slow, deep breaths c. At the end of inspiration d. At the end of expiration ANS: C, D 3. Collimation of the x-ray beam prompts which two of the following? (Select all that apply. ) a. A decrease in radiogr aphicNcoUnRtrSasIt NGTB.COM b. An increase in radiographic contrast c. A decrease of scatter radiation d. An increase of scatter radiation ANS: B, C 4. An increase in SID will result in which two of the following? (Select all that apply. ) a. Decreased magnification b. Increased magnification c. Increased spatial resolution d. Decreased spatial resolution ANS: A, C Chapter 02: General Anatomy and Radiographic Positioning Terminology Long: Merrill’s Atlas of Radiographic Positioning and Procedures, 14th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. In the “anatomic position,” the palms of the hands are facing: a. backward. b. forward. c. up. d. down. ANS: B 2. A plane passing through the body parallel with the midsagittal plane is termed: a. coronal. b. sagittal. c. axial. d. oblique. ANS: B 3. A plane passing vertically through the body from side to side is termed: a. oblique. b. sagittal. c. coronal. d. horizontal. ANS: C 4. Any plane passing through the body at right angles to its longitudinal axis is termed: a. coronal. b. oblique. c. sagittal. d. horizontal. ANS: D 5. All of the following are located in the thoracic cavity except : a. trachea. b. spleen. c. lungs. d. esophagus. ANS: B 6. All of the following are located in the abdominal cavity except : a. kidneys. b. stomach. c. rectum. d. pancreas. ANS: C 7. Into how many regions is the abdomen divided? a. Two b. Four c. Six d. Nine ANS: D 8. The lower, center region on this figure is termed the: a. epigastrium. b. lumbar. c. inguinal. d. hypogastrium. ANS: D 9. The external landmark indicated by the arrow in this figure is the: a. mastoid tip. b. vertebra prominens. c. gonion. d. transverse process. ANS: B 10. T9 and T10 are located at the level of the: a. sternal angle. b. xiphoid process. c. jugular notch. d. vertebra prominens. ANS: B 11. L4 and L5 are located at the level of the: a. costal margin. b. superior iliac spine. c. umbilicus. d. superior aspect of the iliac crests. ANS: D 12. S1 and S2 are located at the level of the: a. costal margin. b. umbilicus. c. superior aspect of the iliac crests. d. anterior superior iliac spines (ASISs). ANS: D 13. All of the following are types of body habitus, except : a. atrophic. b. sthenic. c. asthenic. d. hypersthenic. ANS: A 14. Approximately what percentage of the population has a sthenic body habitus? a. 5% b. 10% c. 35% d. 50% ANS: D 15. Which body habitus is shown in this figure? a. Hypersthenic b. Hyposthenic c. Asthenic d. Atrophic ANS: A 16. The least-occurring body habitus is the: a. hyposthenic. b. hypersthenic. c. asthenic. d. atrophic. ANS: B 17. The adult skeleton is composed of how many bones? a. 185 b. 200 c. 206 d. 208 ANS: C 18. Bones are composed of an outer layer of compact bony tissue called the: a. compact bone. b. periosteum. c. spongy tissue. d. medullary canal. ANS: A 19. Long bones have a central cylindrical cavity called the: a. meniscus. b. periosteum. c. medullary cavity. d. spongy tissue. ANS: C 20. How many specific types of synovial joints are there? a. Three b. Four c. Five d. Six ANS: D 21. Some synovial joints contain synovial fluid –filled sacs outside the main joint cavity called: a. bursae. b. menisci. c. ligaments. d. fibrous capsules. ANS: A 22. How many saddle joints are there in the body? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four ANS: A 23. Some synovial joints contain a thick cushioning pad of fibrocartilage called the: a. bursae. b. meniscus. c. cartilage. d. fibrous capsule. ANS: B 24. Which specific type of joint allows multiaxial movement? a. Pivot b. Gliding c. Ellipsoid d. Ball and socket ANS: D 25. After birth, a separate bone begins to develop at the ends of long bones. Each end is called the: a. diaphysis. b. epiphysis. c. epiphyseal line. d. epiphyseal plate. ANS: B 26. A round ed process at an articulNarUeRxStreImNiGtyTisBc.aClleOdMa: a. condyle. b. malleolus. c. tubercle. d. styloid. ANS: A 27. A hole in a bone for transmission of blood vessels and nerves is called a: a. groove. b. foramen. c. fissure. d. facet. ANS: B 28. A small, smooth -surfaced process for articulation of bones is called a: a. condyle. b. coronoid. c. facet. d. tuberosity. ANS: C 29. A term that means the same as anterior is: a. plantar. b. distal. c. dorsal. d. ventral. ANS: D 30. The term that may also be used to refer to the posterior surface of the body is: a. dorsal. b. ventral. c. volar. d. plantar. ANS: A 31. The term that refers to parts away from the head of the body, or angling the central ray toward the feet is: a. caudad. b. cephalad. c. medial. d. proximal. ANS: A 32. The term that refers to parts nearer the point of attachment, or origin, is: a. distal. b. proximal. c. caudad. d. cephalad. ANS: B 33. The term used to describe the sole of the foot is: a. ventral. b. posterior. c. plantar. d. dorsal. ANS: C 34. A large, rounded, elevated process on a bone is called a(n): a. malleolus. b. epicondyle. c. tubercle. d. tuberosity. ANS: D 35. All of the following terms are used to describe “body positions,” except : a. upright. b. axial. c. prone. d. LPO. ANS: B 36. Which of the following is an x-ray “projection”? a. RPO b. LAO c. Dorsoplantar d. Recumbent ANS: C 37. Which of the following is an x-ray “position”? a. Mediolateral b. Craniocaudal c. Orbitoparietal d. Trendelenburg ANS: D 38. Which of the following is an x-ray “projection”? a. Tangential b. Lordotic c. Right anterior oblique (RAO) d. Right lateral decubitus ANS: A 39. The path of the central ray stated as it exits the x -ray tube, travels through the patient and strikes the IR defines: a. radiography. b. decubitus. c. position. d. projection. ANS: D 40. If the central ray enters the anterior body surface and exits the posterior body surface, the x-ray projection is termed: a. PA. b. AP. c. lateral. d. axiolateral. ANS: B 41. The x-ray projection identified in this figure is: a. AP. b. PA. c. AP axial. d. AP oblique. ANS: C 42. Identify the x-ray projection illustrated in this figure. a. Tangential b. PA axial oblique. c. Orbitoparietal d. Parietoorbital ANS: A 43. When there is longitudinal angulation of the central ray with the long axis of the body, the projection will always use the term: a. oblique. b. axial. c. lateral. d. decubitus. ANS: B 44. Which of the following terms are used both as an x-ray projection and a body position? 1. Axial 2. Oblique 3. Lateral a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C 45. The term used to describe the act of placing the patient appropriately for a radiographic examination is: a. supine. b. recumbent. c. projection. d. position. ANS: D 46. Which of the following terms is used to describe a patient placed “lying on the back”? a. Supine b. Prone c. Lateral d. Recumbent ANS: A 47. What is the patient position illustrated in this figure? a. Dorsal recumbent b. Right lateral recumbent c. Left lateral decubitus d. Trendelenburg ANS: B 48. Oblique positions are always named according to the side of the patient that is: a. closest to the x-ray tube. b. the source of pathology. c. closest to the IR. d. farthest from the IR. ANS: C 49. The patient in this figure is placed in which position? a. RPO b. LPO c. RAO d. LAO