(Test Bank) Bontragers Textbook Of Radiographic Positioning And Related Anatomy

Bontrager, 8

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8th Edition

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Test Bank for Bontragers Textbook Of Radiographic Positioning And Related Anatomy, The downloadable file consists of 352 pages, and the total size of the file is 3.21 MB. Purchase now only for highly discounted price.

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PRIMEXAM.COM Bontragers Textbook of Radiographic Positioning and Related Anatomy 8th Edition Bontrager Test Bank Chapter 01: Terminology, Positioning, and Imaging Principles Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What type of tissue binds together and supports the various structures of the body? a. Epithelial b. Connective c. Muscular d. Nervous ANS: B REF: 3 2. The lowest level of structural organization in the human body is the level. a. molecular b. cellular c. chemical d. atomic ANS: C REF: 3 3. What type of tissue covers internal and external surfaces of the body? a. Muscular b. Connective c. Nervous d. Epithelial ANS: D REF: 3 4. A body system consists of an association of organs that share a common function. a. True b. False ANS: A REF: 3 5. How many individual body systems comprise the human body? a. 22 b. 13 c. 10 d. 8 ANS: C REF: 3 6. How many separate bones are found in the adult human body? a. 181 b. 215 c. 206 d. 236 ANS: C REF: 4 7. Which system of the human body is responsible for the elimination of solid waste? PRIMEXAM.COM a. Circulatory b. Respiratory c. Urinary d. Digestive ANS: D REF: 4 8. Which of the following systems of the human body includes all ductless glands of the body? a. Endocrine b. Integumentary c. Muscular d. Glandular ANS: A REF: 6 9. Which of the following body systems helps to regulate body temperature? a. Circulatory b. Urinary c. Endocrine d. Nervous ANS: A REF: 4 10. Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton? a. Radius b. Hip bone c. Clavicle d. Sternum ANS: D REF: 7 11. How many bones are there in the adult axial skeleton? a. 206 b. 80 c. 54 d. 126 ANS: B REF: 7 12. What is the name of the small oval-shaped bone found in tendons? a. Wormian b. Tendinous c. Irregular bones d. Sesamoid bones ANS: D REF: 8 13. Which of the following bones is classified as a long bone? a. Carpal bone b. Scapula c. Cranium d. Humerus PRIMEXAM.COM ANS: D REF: 8 14. What is the name of the dense fibrous membrane that covers bone? a. Cancellous portion b. Periosteum c. Diploë d. Medullary portion ANS: B REF: 9 15. Which of the following bones is classified as a short bone? a. Vertebrae b. Phalanges (toes) c. Scapulae d. Carpal (wrist bones) ANS: D REF: 9 16. Which of the following is a secondary growth center for endochondral ossification? a. Diaphysis b. Epiphyses c. Metaphysis d. Articular cartilage ANS: B REF: 10 17. Which aspect of the long bones is responsible for the production of red blood cells? a. Compact bone b. Periost eum c. Medullary cavity d. Spongy or cancellous bone ANS: D REF: 9 18. Examples of “flat” bones are the: a. calvaria, ribs, scapulae, and sternum. b. ribs, sternum, patella, and ilia of pelvis. c. sternum, scapulae, ilia of pelvis, and base of cranium. d. sternum and ilia of pelvis only. ANS: A REF: 9 19. What is the primary center for bone growth termed? a. Epiphyses b. Diaphysis c. Metaphysis d. Epiphyseal plate ANS: B REF: 10 20. Which of the following is NOT a functional classification of joints? a. Synarthrosis b. Amphiarthrosis PRIMEXAM.COM c. Cartilaginous d. Diarthrosis ANS: C REF: 11 21. The structural term for a freely movable joint is: a. fibrous. b. cartilaginous. c. synovial. d. gomphosis. ANS: C REF: 12 22. Which of the following joints displays a “hinge” type of movement? a. Trochoid b. Ellipsoidal c. Sellar d. Ginglymus ANS: D REF: 13 23. Which of the following joints is NOT a synovial joint? a. Skull suture b. Elbow joint c. Hip joint d. Proximal radioulnar joint ANS: A REF: 12 | 14 24. Which of the following is classified as a sellar joint? a. Ankle joint b. Temporomandibular joint c. Knee joint d. Intercarpal joint ANS: A REF: 14 25. Which of the following is classified as a bicondylar joint? a. Shoulder joint b. Temporomandibular joint c. First and second cervical vertebra joint d. Distal radioulnar joint ANS: B REF: 14 26. An upright position with the arms abducted, palms forward, and head forward describes the position. a. anteroposterior (AP) b. decubitus c. anatomic d. oblique ANS: C REF: 15 PRIMEXAM.COM 27. A representation of the patient’s anatomic structures that can be obtained, viewed, manipulated, and stored digitally is the definition for: a. radiograph. b. radiography. c. radiographic image. d. radiographic examination. ANS: C REF: 15 28. The vertical plane that divide s the body into right and left halves describes the plane. a. coronal b. median or midsagittal c. longitudinal d. horizontal ANS: B REF: 16 29. A longitudinal plane that divides the body into equal anterior and posterior parts is the plane. a. midcoronal b. midsagittal c. horizontal d. oblique ANS: A REF: 16 30. Which of the following termsNdeRscriIbes Gthe Bso.leCof Mthe foot? a. Palmar U b. Dorsum c. Volar d. Plantar ANS: D REF: 17 S N T O 31. Which term describes the back or posterior aspect of the hand? a. Dorsum pedis b. Dorsum manus c. Palmar d. Volar ANS: B REF: 17 32. A lateromedial projection is one in which the lateral aspect of the anatomy part is closest to the image receptor (IR). a. True b. False ANS: B REF: 18 33. A position in which the head is lower than the feet is: a. Trendelenburg. b. lithotomy. PRIMEXAM.COM c. Fowler’s. d. recumbent. ANS: A REF: 19 34. Which term describes lying down in any position? a. Horizontal b. Fowler’s c. Recumbent d. Anatomic ANS: C REF: 19 35. A recumbent oblique position in which the patient is lying on the left anterior side rotated anteriorly, with the right knee and thigh flexed is termed: a. Trendelenburg. b. left posterior oblique. c. Sims’ position. d. Fowler’s position. ANS: C REF: 19 36. A patient is lying on her back facing the x -ray tube. The right side of her body is turned 20  toward the image receptor. What is this radiographic position? a. LPO (left posterior oblique) b. RPO (right posterior oblique) c. RAO (right anterior oblique) d. LAO (left anterior obliq uNe) R I G B.C M U ANS: B REF: 20 S N T O 37. A patient is erect with the left side directly against the image receptor. The central ray (CR) enters the right side of the body. What is this radiographic position? a. Right lateral b. Left lateral decubitus c. Left lateral d. Dorsal decubitus ANS: C REF: 21 38. A patient is lying on her back. The x-ray tube is horizontally directed with the CR entering the right side of the body. The image receptor is adjacent to the left side of the body. What is the radiographic position? a. Left lateral decubitus b. Left lateral c. Right lateral decubitus d. Dorsal decubitus ANS: D REF: 21 PRIMEXAM.COM U S N T O 39. A patient is erect facing the image receptor. The left side of the body is turned 45  toward the image receptor. The CR enters the posterior aspect of the body and exits the anterior. What is this radiographic position? a. LAO b. LPO c. Left lateral d. Posteroanterior (PA) ANS: A REF: 20 40. What type of projection is created with the CR directed along or parallel to the long axis of the body? a. Axial b. Tangential c. Lordotic d. Transthoracic ANS: A REF: 22 41. A projection in which the CR skims a body part is termed: a. tangential. b. lordotic. c. axial. d. decubitus. ANS: A REF: 22 42. What is the g eneral term for Na poRsitioIn inGwhBic.hCtheMlong axis of the body is angled in relationship to the image receptor rather than the central ray (e.g., special chest projection)? a. Axial b. Trendelenburg c. Decubitus d. Lordotic ANS: D REF: 22 43. The opposite term for supination is: a. protraction. b. adduction. c. pronation. d. retraction. ANS: C REF: 27 44. Which of the following positions is often used to insert a rectal enema tip before a barium enema study? a. Fowler’s b. Modified Sims’ c. Lithotomy d. Trendelenburg ANS: B REF: 19 PRIMEXAM.COM 45. Tangential and axial projections are the same type of projection. a. True b. False ANS: B REF: 22 46. A dorsoplantar projection would be a radiographic study of: a. any anatomic region. b. the hand. c. the foot. d. the skull. ANS: C REF: 23 47. Moving the foot and toes downward is: a. eversion. b. inversion. c. dorsiflexion. d. plantar flexion. ANS: D REF: 26 48. Movement in the form of a circle is the definition for: a. rotation. b. retraction. c. circumduction. d. protraction. ANS: C REF: 28 49. Radiographic view is NOT a valid positioning term in the United States. a. True b. False ANS: A REF: 29 50. Which of the following terms is the opposite of ipsilateral? a. Medial b. Deviation c. Contralateral d. Axiolateral ANS: C REF: 24 | 29 51. The term position can be used for both a lateral and an oblique body position. a. True b. False ANS: A REF: 29 52. The radiographic term projection is defined as: a. general position of the patient. PRIMEXAM.COM b. path or direction of the central ray. c. radiographic image as seen from the vantage of the image receptor. d. computer -assisted image. ANS: B REF: 29 53. According to the American Registry of Radiologic Technologists (ARRT) Code of Ethics, a radiologic technologist may render a diagnosis during a radiographic examination if requested by the patient. a. True b. False ANS: B REF: 32 54. According to the ARRT Code of Ethics, radiologic technologists must participate in continuing education activities throughout their professional career. a. True b. False ANS: A REF: 32 55. According to the ARRT Code of Ethics, a radiologic technologist may discuss any patient’s clinical history with another health professional. a. True b. False ANS: B REF: 32 56. Which of following i s NOT oNnUe RofSthIeNeGvaTluBa.tioCnOcMriteria used in the evaluation of images? a. Patient condition b. Anatomy demonstrated c. Collimation and CR d. Exposure criteria ANS: A REF: 30 57. It is legally acceptable to write “right” or “left” on a radiograph if the anatomic side marker is not visible. a. True b. False ANS: B REF: 31 58. A patient enters the emergency department (ED) with a piece of wire in the palm of the hand. What is the minimum number of projections required to be taken for this radiographic study? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four or more ANS: B REF: 33 PRIMEXAM.COM 59. The radiographer has the responsibility of communicating with the patient to obtain pertinent clinical information. a. True b. False ANS: A REF: 32 60. The radiographer may provide a preliminary interpretation of the radiographic study if requested by the patient. a. True b. False ANS: B REF: 32 61. Which of the following radiographic procedures often only requires a single AP projection be taken? a. Finger b. Ribs c. Chest d. Pelvis ANS: D REF: 33 | 34 62. What is the final step taken before making the exposure during a positioning routine? a. Image receptor centering b. Placing anatomic markers on image receptor c. Ensuring correct gonadal shield placement d. Collimation adjustments ANS: C REF: 61 63. What is the minimal number of projections taken for a study of the femur? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four ANS: B REF: 34 64. What is the minimal number of projections taken for a study of the right hip? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four ANS: B REF: 34 65. What is the minimal number of projections taken for a postreduction (to realign a fracture) study of the ankle? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four PRIMEXAM.COM ANS: B REF: 34 66. What is the minimal number of projections taken for a study of the knee? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four ANS: C REF: 34 67. It is common practice to view a PA projection with the patient’s left facing the viewer’s right. a. True b. False ANS: A REF: 35 68. PA or AP oblique projections are placed on the view box with the patient’s right side of the body facing the viewer’s right. a. True b. False ANS: B REF: 35 69. Decubitus chest projections are placed for viewing the way the image receptor “sees” them. a. True b. False ANS: B REF: 35 70. When placing radiographs of the hand on the view box, the digits should be pointing upward. a. True b. False ANS: A REF: 35 71. When placing radiographs of the lower leg, the toes of the foot must be pointing upward. a. True b. False ANS: B REF: 35 72. When viewing a CT (computed tomography) or MRI (magnetic resonance imaging) image, the patient’s right is facing the viewer’s left. a. True b. False ANS: B REF: 35 73. A patient is erect with his left side of the chest placed against the image receptor. The central ray enters the left side of the upper chest and exits the right. Which specific position has been performed? a. Dorsal decubitus b. Transthoracic lateral PRIMEXAM.COM c. Right lateral d. Ventral decubitus ANS: B REF: 23 74. A patient is erect facing the x -ray tube and leaning the shoulders backward 20  to 30  toward the IR. The central ray is perpendicular to the IR. What specific position has been performed? a. Lordotic b. Axial c. Kyphotic d. Tangential ANS: A REF: 22 75. The top of the foot is placed against the image receptor with the perpendicular central ray entering the sole of the foot. What specific projection has been performed? a. Transpedal b. Plantodorsal c. Axial dorsoplantar d. Tangential plantodorsal ANS: B REF: 23 76. The patient is lying on her right side on a cart. The anterior surface of the patient is against the image receptor. A horizontal central ray enters the posterior surface and exits the anterior surface of the body. What specific projection/position has been performed? a. AP b. PA c. Right lateral decubitus d. Left lateral decubitus ANS: C REF: 21 77. The patient’s head and neck are hyperextended with the top of the skull directly against the image receptor. The central ray enters just below the chin. Which specific projection has been performed? a. Submentovertical b. Acanthioparietal c. Parietoacanthial d. Verticosubmental ANS: D REF: 23 78. Which of the following is NOT one of the four image quality factors of an analog radiograph? a. Contrast b. Detail c. Source image receptor distance (SID) d. Distortion ANS: C REF: 37 79. The amount of blackness seen on a processed radiograph is called: PRIMEXAM.COM a. fog. b. scatter. c. contrast. d. density. ANS: D REF: 37 80. Which of the following factors primarily controls radiographic density in the analog image? a. kV b. mAs c. Film -screen speed d. Optimal immunomodulating dose (OID) ANS: B REF: 37 81. A radiograph of the hand is underexposed and nondiagnostic. The following analog (film screen) exposure factors were used: 50 kV, 2 mAs, 40 -inch (102 cm) SID. Which of the following sets of exposure factors should be used during the repeat exposure? a. 50 kV, 8 mAs, 40 inches (102 cm) b. 50 kV, 1 mAs, 40 inches (102 cm) c. 60 kV, 4 mAs, 40 inches (102 cm) d. 50 kV, 4 mAs, 40 inches (102 cm) ANS: D REF: 40 82. A % increase in kV will increase density the same as doubling the mAs. a. 15 b. 10 c. 100 d. 25 ANS: A REF: 40 83. Exposure time is usually expressed in units of: a. seconds. b. nanoseconds. c. microseconds. d. milliseconds. ANS: D REF: 36 84. What is the primary controlling factor for radiographic contrast? a. kV b. mA c. Film -screen speed d. SID ANS: A REF: 40 85. Which of the following radiographic studies would best benefit by applying the anode heel effect? a. Hand b. Skull PRIMEXAM.COM c. Thoracic spine d. Ribs ANS: C REF: 38 86. The intensity of the x-ray beam is greatest under the anode as defined by the anode heel effect. a. True b. False ANS: B REF: 38 87. Which of the following devices can be used rather than applying the anode heel effect to compensate for anatomic part thickness differences? a. Compensating filters b. Copper filters c. Graded screens d. Added filtration ANS: A REF: 39 88. Short scale contrast (in the analog image) is the result of: a. scatter radiation. b. collimation. c. high kV. d. low kV. ANS: D REF: 40 89. What is the most effective mNetUhoRdStoIrNedGuTceBt.heCpOroMduction of scatter radiation? a. Increase kV. b. Increase mAs. c. Collimate. d. Use a grid. ANS: C REF: 62 90. A radiograph of the abdomen is underexposed and must be repeated. The original analog exposure factors used were 65 kV with 25 mAs. The technologist decides to keep the mA at the same level but change the kV to increase radiographic density. How much of an increase is needed in kilovoltage to double the density? a. 3 to 5 kV b. 9 to 10 kV c. 10 to 15 kV d. 15 to 20 kV ANS: B REF: 40 91. What type of radiographic contrast is produced with a high (120) kV technique? a. Low contrast, short scale b. High contrast, short scale c. Low contrast, long scale d. High contrast, long scale PRIMEXAM.COM ANS: C REF: 40 92. Which of the following controlling factors will most affect radiographic resolution? a. kV b. mAs c. Filtration d. Focal spot size ANS: D REF: 42-43 93. The unsharp edge of the projected image is termed: a. distortion. b. penumbra. c. edge loss. d. margin distortion. ANS: B REF: 42 94. A radiograph of the abdomen demonstrates involuntary motion caused by bowel peristalsis (involuntary contractions). Which of the following factors will best eliminate this problem during the repeat exposure? a. Decrease SID. b. Turn patient into prone position rather than supine. c. Use higher kV. d. Decrease exposure time. ANS: D REF: 43 95. Which of the following chanNgeUs RwSillIimNpGrTovBe.spCaOtiaMl resolution? a. Decrease SID. b. Decrease OID. c. Decrease kV. d. None of the above will improve spatial resolution. ANS: B REF: 45 96. Increasing the SID will increase distortion of the anatomy. a. True b. False ANS: B REF: 44 97. A 40-inch (102 cm) SID should be the minimal distance used for most radiographic projections. a. True b. False ANS: A REF: 45 98. Increasing the SID to 48 inches (123 cm) from 40 inches (102 cm) and adjusting the mAs accordingly will: a. increase penumbra. b. along with the use of a small focal spot, decrease penumbra.