(Test Bank) Fundamental Concepts and Skills for the Patient Care Technician

Townsend, 1

Nursing

Test Bank

1st Edition

• $10.00 $35.00

---

Description

Test Bank for Fundamental Concepts and Skills for the Patient Care Technician, The downloadable file consists of 157 pages, and the total size of the file is 1.26 MB. Purchase now only for highly discounted price.

Author(s): Townsend

---

---

Study Note Preview

Fundamental Concepts and Skills for the Patient Care Technician 1st Edition Townsend Test Bank Chapter 01: Today’s Healthcare Townsend: Fundamental Concepts and Skills for the Patient Care Technician, 1st Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following must the PCT recognize regarding the healthcare delivery system? a. It includes all states. b. It affects the illness of patients. c. Insurance companies are not involved. d. The major goal is to achieve optimal levels of healthcare. ANS: D The PCT must recognize that in the healthcare delivery system, the major goal is to achieve optimal levels of healthcare. The healthcare system consists of a network of agencies, facilities, and providers involved with healthcare in a specified geographic area. Insurance companies do have involvement in the healthcare system. The illness of patie nts is not necessarily affected by the healthcare system. REF: p. 5 OBJ: 1 2. What is required by the healthcare team to identify the needs of a patient and to design care to meet those needs? a. The Kardex b. The nurse’s notes c. The physician’s order sheet d. An individualized care plan ANS: D An individualized care plan involves all healthcare workers and outlines care to meet the needs of the individual patient. The Kardex, physician’s order sheet, and nurse’s notes do not identify the needs of the patient nor are they designed to assist all members of the healthcare team to meet those needs. REF: pp. 10 -11 OBJ: 3 3. How does an interdisciplinary approach to patient treatment enhance care? a. By improving efficiency of care b. By reducing the number of caregivers c. By preventing the fragmentation of patient care d. By shortening hospital stay ANS: C An interdisciplinary approach prevents fragmentation of care by involving and including all care providers. An interd isciplinary approach does not improve the efficiency of care, reduce the number of caregivers, or shorten hospital stay. REF: p. 10 OBJ: 3 | 4 4. How may a newly licensed LPN/LVN practice? a. Independently in a hospital setting b. With an experienced LPN/LVN c. Under the supervision of a physician or RN d. As a sole practitioner in a clinic setting ANS: C An LPN/LVN practices under the supervision of a physician, dentist, OD, or RN. An LPN/LVN is not to practice independently in a hospital setting, under the supervision of a more experienced LPN/LVN, or as a sole practitioner in a clinic setting. REF: p. 7 OBJ: 5 5. What document identifies the roles and responsibilities of the LPN/LVN? a. The nurse’s employer b. NLN Accreditation Standards c. Nurse Practice Act d. NAPNE Code ANS: C The LPN/LVN functions under the Nurse Practice Act. The nurse’s employer may outline the working responsibilities of the nurse, but it is the nurse’s responsibility to make sure they stay within their scope of practice as described by the Nurse Practice Act. Neither NLN Accreditation Standards nor the NAPNE Code identify the roles and responsibilities of the LPN/LVN. REF: p. 7 OBJ: 5 6. What is the title of the AmericaNnUHRoSspIitNalGATsBso.cCiaOtiMon’s 1972 do cument that outlines the patient’s expectations to be treated with dignity and compassion? a. Code of Ethics b. Patient’s Bill of Rights c. OBRA d. Advance directives ANS: B The title of the American Hospital Association’s 1972 document that outlines the patient’s expectations is the Patient’s Bill of Rights. Patient expectations are not outlined in the Code of Ethics, OBRA, or advance directives. REF: p. 10 OBJ: 2 7. What system reduces the number of employees but still provides quality care for patients? a. Team nursing b. Cross -training c. Use of critical pathways d. Case management ANS: B Cross -training reduces the number of employees by training one employee to do more than one job without altering the quality of patient care. Team nursing, use of critical pathways, and case management do not reduce the number of employees while continuing to provide quality care for patients. REF: p. 9 OBJ: 5 8. On what premise is Maslow’s Model of Health and Illness based? a. All needs are equally important. b. Basic needs must be met before the next level of needs can be met. c. Self-actualization is a primary need. d. Individuals prioritize needs the same way. ANS: B Maslow’s Model of Health and Illness is based on the premise that basic needs must be met first. It is not based on all needs being equally important or that individuals prioritize needs the same way. Self -actualization is not a primary need according to Maslow. REF: p. 6 OBJ: 3 | 4 9. What must the nurse realize when assessing physical and social environmental factors affecting health and illness? a. They affect one another. b. They cause illness. c. They cause patients to react similarly. d. They can be separated. ANS: A Although there is often a tendency to separate social factors from physical factors, remember that the two areas affect each other reciprocally. Physical and social factors affect each other, cannot be separated, and cause each patient to react in a unique manner. They do not necessarily cause illness or cauNseUpRaStieInNtsGtoTBre.acCt OsiMmilarly, and they cannot be separated. REF: p. 9 OBJ: 3 | 4 10. What system of comprehensive patient care considers the physical, emotional, and social environment and spiritual needs of a person? a. Interdependent care b. Holistic healthcare c. Illness prevention care d. Health promotion care ANS: B Holistic healthcare encompasses the physical, emotional, social, and spiritual aspects of the patient. Interdependent, illness prevention, and health promotion are incorrect as they do not represent the comprehensive patient care found in holistic healthcare. REF: p. 6 OBJ: 3 11. What is the wellness -illness continuum defined as? a. A concept that never changes b. The range of a person’s total health c. A continuum influenced only by one’s physical condition d. An idea that focuses strictly on an individual’s social well-being ANS: B The wellness -illness continuum is defined as the range of a person’s total health. This continuum is ever changing, and it is influenced by the individual’s physical condition, mental condition, and socia l well-being. Wellness represents the highest level of optimal health. Illness, at the opposite end of the spectrum, represents a diminished or impaired state of health. REF: p. 5 OBJ: 3 Chapter 02: The Role of the Patient Care Technician Townsend: Fundamental Concepts and Skills for the Patient Care Technician, 1st Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. How does using a Patient Care Technician help reduce the risk of infection? a. By increasing the times someone enters the room. b. By encouraging good hand washing practices. c. By reducing the amount of hand sanitizer that a facility orders. d. By reducing the number of staff coming in and out of a patient’s room. ANS: D Hiring Patient Care Technicians reduces the number of staff a facility would need by having one person who can has the skills to complete many different tasks. This not only saves the healthcare institution time and mone y, it also decreases the number of staff coming in and out of a patient’s room, which may increase patient satisfaction and decreases the risk of infection. REF: p. 14 OBJ: 2 2. Which is the most important consideration in choosing a uniform? a. It should be becoming and flattering to the body type. b. It should not be wrinkled by the end of the workday. c. It should give the wearer a professional and neat appearance. d. It should be fashionable. ANS: C Uniforms should provide the wearer with a professional and neat appearance. While it should be flattering, that is not the most important consideration. It may become wrinkled by the end of the day. It may be fashionable, but the uniform may depend on the requirements of the facility. REF: pp. 18 -19 OBJ: 4 3. Extra advantages or benefits from working in a specific job are called a. prerequisites. b. perks. c. commissions. d. extras. ANS: B Perks are extra advantages or benefits from working in a specific job that may or may not be commonly found in that particular profession, those things which are more attractive or interesting, such as having weekends off. REF: p. 13 | p. 17 OBJ: 4 4. A growing field of opportunity for employment for the PCT is in hemodialysis. What is hemodialysis? a. Removal of blood to lower blood pressure b. Removal of urine to reduce the pressure on the bladder c. Removal of waste products to ease the workload of the kidney d. Removal of water to reduce the workload of the heart ANS: C Hemodialysis is a procedure that removes waste products from the blood, which eases the workload on the kidney. All other options are incorrect. REF: p. 14 OBJ: 2 | 3 5. The emergency room nurse may not delegate which of the following to the PCT? a. Urine pregnancy testing b. Blood draw for laboratories c. Diagnose the patient d. Finger -stick glucose testing ANS: C The duties performed by the patient care technician do not constitute the practice of medicine. Diagnosing the patient is considered practicing medicine. The PCT may perform urine pregnancy testing, draw blood for laboratories, and perform finger -stick glucose testing. REF: pp. 14 -15 | p. 17 OBJ: 2 6. Which of the follow is not expected of the PCT? a. Read and interpret x-rays b. Proficient in phlebotomy c. Provide first aid and CPR d. Assist in minor surgical procedures ANS: A The PCT is not expected to read and interpret x -rays. The clinical duties that patient care techn icians perform vary according to the healthcare institution and state. They assist with or perform basic testing procedures and are usually proficient in phlebotomy. Patient care technicians are trained in first aid skills and cardiopulmonary resuscitation. They assist in minor surgical procedures. REF: p. 17 OBJ: 2 7. When is the sharing of personal or intimate patient information acceptable? a. When discussing with a coworker b. When required to provide care c. When it is interesting or funny d. When venting to someone in healthcare ANS: B Such information must be held in strict confidence and must never be discussed with or relayed to others, including professional associates, unless the lack of knowledge would hinder the patient’s care. It is never acceptable to share patient information i n discussion, as a story, or when venting. REF: p. 19 OBJ: 2 8. What task can the PCT perform that the CNA cannot? a. Bathing b. ECG c. Oral Care d. Vital Signs ANS: B The CNA is not trained to perform ECGs. Both CNAs and PCTs are trained to perform bathing, oral care, and vital signs. REF: p. 14 OBJ: 6 9. Certification for the PCT is provided by which organization? a. NHA b. CNA c. CPCT/A d. RN ANS: A The National Healthcareer Association (NHA) offers certification for the patient care technician. CNA stands for certified nursing assistant. The Certified Patient Care Technician/Assistant (CPCT/A) is the certification examination. RN stands for registere d nurse. REF: p. 16 OBJ: 5 10. Which of the following is true NreUgaRrdSiIngNcGoTntBin.uCinOgMeducation unit s? a. The PCT much obtain 12 CEUs every 2 years. b. CEUs are required to renew certification. c. CEUs are only available online. d. CEUs are not required for PCTs. ANS: B The Certified Patient Care Technician is required to have 10 credits of Continuing Education before renewing their certification every 2 years. These credits can be obtained through various other agencies and educational institutions. Professional seminars and workshops often offer CEUs. REF: pp. 16 -17 OBJ: 5 Chapter 03: Professionalism and Work Ethics Townsend: Fundamental Concepts and Skills for the Patient Care Technician, 1st Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Disobedience to authority is called a. morale. b. tenacity. c. insubordination. d. initiative. ANS: C Insubordination is defined as disobedience to authority. REF: p. 21| p. 26 OBJ: 7 2. The mental and emotional condition, enthusiasm, loyalty, or confidence of an individual or group with regard to the function or tasks at hand is called a. morale. b. tenacity. c. insubordination. d. initiative. ANS: A Morale is defined as the mental and emotional condition, enthusiasm, loyalty, or confidence of an individual or group with rNeUgaRrdStIoNthGeTfBun.cCtioOnMor tasks at hand. REF: p. 21| p. 25 OBJ: 5 3. How do rumors impact morale? a. Rumors improve morale because they are positive. b. Rumors harm morale because they are negative. c. Rumors have no effect on morale. d. Rumors are uncommon. ANS: B A rumor is considered to be talk or widely disseminated opinions with no discernible source, or a statement that is not known to be true. The definition alone suggests that spreading rumors should be avoided. Most people enjoy working in an environment in which employees cooperate and get along with each other, but rumors can cause problems with employee morale and often are great exaggerations or manipulations of the truth. REF: p. 25 OBJ: 2 4. Deciding which tasks are most important is called a. modification. b. teaching. c. prioritizing. d. procrastinating. ANS: C The medical assistant is prioritizing tasks when he or she is deciding which tasks are most important. REF: p. 27 OBJ: 2 5. Faithfulness or allegiance to a cause, ideal, custom, institution, or product is called a. flexibility. b. courtesy. c. dependability. d. loyalty. ANS: D Loyalty is faithfulness or allegiance to a cause, ideal, custom, institution, or product. Loyalty to an employer means that the employee is appreciative of the opportunity provided by the job and supports the company by giving the best effort possible. REF: p. 23 OBJ: 2 6. When medical assistants look for the opportunity to assist others, they are said to be a. taking initiative. b. flexible. c. courteous. d. dependable. ANS: A Taking initiative means that the patient care technician looks for opportunities to be of help, assisti ng othe rs as the workloadNdUeRmSaIndNsG. ITnsBte.aCd OofMwaiting to be told to pe rform a task, the competent patient care technician looks for tasks that need to be completed. Flexibility is the ability adapt to a wide variety of situations. Courtesy is the use of kindness to coworkers. Dependability is doing what you say you are going to do. REF: pp. 22 -23 OBJ: 2 7. When medical assistants are able to adapt to various situations, they are considered to be a. dependable. b. flexible. c. courteous. d. loyal. ANS: B A flexible medical assistant is one who is able to adapt to a wide variety of situations. Loyalty is faithfulness or allegi ance to a cause, ideal, custom, institution, or product. Dependability is doing what you say you are going to do. Courtesy is the use of kindness to coworkers. REF: p. 23 OBJ: 2 8. Workplace politics a. are always negative. b. are always a source of tension. c. can be positive. d. are underhanded schemes. ANS: C Workplace politics can be negative or positive, good or bad. Politics can be defined as the art or science of influencing and guiding government or some other organization. The sam e can be applied to workplace politics. When an individual wishes to move upward in an organization, he or she may use a positive or negative strategy. REF: p. 23 OBJ: 6 9. Confidentiality is important because a. laws protect the patient against breach of confidentiality. b. the patient has a right to privacy. c. patients trust medical professionals to keep their medical information confidential. d. All of the above ANS: D Patients are entitled to privacy where their health is concerned, and they should be confident that healthcare professionals use information only to care for them. Never reveal any information about any patient to anyone without specific permission to do so. Always verify that the person seeking information ha s the right to see it and that the patient has signed a consent form allowing a third party to view the record. REF: pp. 23 -24 OBJ: 3 10. Which is one of the most common physical places in which confidentiality is breached? a. Elevators b. Examination rooms c. The physician’s office d. The reception room ANS: A Casual conversations in hallways, elevators, and break rooms between staff members can be overheard by family members or friends of patients. Confidentiali ty is often breached in these areas of the healthcare setting. REF: pp. 23 -24 OBJ: 3 11. An obstruction to professionalism could be a. a cooperative co-worker. b. a co-worker who assists in completing a difficult task. c. bringing personal problems to the office. d. speaking in an even, calm tone. ANS: C Personal problems and baggage can distract the PCT and become an obstruction to professionalism in the workplace. REF: p. 25 OBJ: 2 12. A PCT might be terminated for a. consistent tardiness. b. insubordination. c. substance abuse. d. All of the above ANS: D Each of the issues mentioned can lead to disciplinary action, including termination of employment. REF: p. 22| p. 26 OBJ: 2 | 7 | 8 13. The potential to abuse alcohol is partially a. inherited. b. incurable. c. irresistible. d. unmanageable. ANS: A The potential to abuse alcohol is partially inherited, and an individual’s lifestyle also may influence whether a person becomes an alcoholic. REF: p. 29 OBJ: 8 14. When the body needs or thinks it needs a drug to function normally, this is called a. dependence. b. abuse. c. misuse. d. addiction. ANS: A Physical dependence is not always part of the definition of addiction. Some drugs (e.g., diabetes and blood pressure medications) cause a physical dependence but not an addiction. REF: pp. 28 -29 OBJ: 8 Chapter 04: Communicating with the Healthcare Team Townsend: Fundamental Concepts and Skills for the Patient Care Technician, 1st Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What does documentation of type of care, time of care, and signature of the person prove? a. The person who signed the documentation did all the work noted. b. No litigation can be brought against the person who signed. c. Interventions were implemented to meet the patient’s needs. d. The patient’s response to the intervention was positive. ANS: C Documenting type of care, time of care, and signature of the person results in recording the interventions that are implemented to meet the patient’s needs. Documentation does not prevent litigation. Many charting entries include doctor’s visits, presence of family, or interventions by other departments. Patient response to some interventions is not always positive. REF: pp. 36 -40 OBJ: 9 2. What form is used when events are not consistent with facility or national standards of expected care? a. Subjective data b. Focus chart c. Incident report d. Nursing assessment ANS: C An incident report is a form used to document any event not consistent with the routine operation of a healthcare unit or the routine care of a patient. REF: p. 41 OBJ: 8 3. What is the PCT required to do to adhere to the concept of confidentiality for the patient’s medical record? a. Provide information only to another PCT b. Provide information only to an attorney c. Share information only with the family d. Have a clinical reason for reading the record ANS: D The PCT should not read the patient’s medical record unless there is a clinical reason for doing so. REF: p. 48 OBJ: 8 4. What is the purpose of quality assurance? a. To screen employment applications b. To evaluate care results against accepted standards c. To conduct in-services for “quality documentation” d. To report deviation from standards to the state health department ANS: B Quality assurance is an audit that evaluates care services and results against accepted standards. REF: p. 37 OBJ: 8 | 9 5. Who is the legal owner of the patient’s medical record? a. Patient b. Physician c. Institution d. State ANS: C The original healthcare record or chart is the property of the institution or the healthcare provider. On admission to the healthcare facility, the patient is usually asked to sign a form granting permission to access the record by individuals that have a need to know, such as insurance carriers. Patients may not have immediate access to their full records, depending on agency policy. REF: p. 47 OBJ: 8 6. When using computerized documentation, which process should the PCT use to ensure that the next person is unable to view their documentation? a. Charting in code b. Logging off c. Charting in privacy d. Signing on with a password ANS: B When you are done documenting, always log completely out of the system so that the next person will be unable to view any of your documentation. REF: p. 35 | Box 4 -1 OBJ: 10 7. Although the patient denies pain, the PCT observes the patient breathing rapidly with clenched fists and facial grimacing. What is the PCT’s best response to these observations? a. “I am glad you are feeling better and have no discomfort.” b. “Where do you hurt?” c. “What you are saying and what I am observing don’t seem to match.” d. “It makes me uncomfortable when you are not honest with me.” ANS: C The nonverbal communication should be clarified to prevent miscommunication. REF: pp. 33 -35 OBJ: 1 8. The PCT considers the feelings and needs of a patient by stating, “I know you are concerned about your surgery tomorrow. How can I help you?” What type of communication is this? a. Intrusive b. Aggressive c. Closed d. Assertive ANS: D Assertive communication takes a patient’s feelings and needs into account, yet honors the patient’s rights as an individual. REF: pp. 35 -36 OBJ: 2 9. The PCT aggressively says to a patient, “Why couldn’t you have asked me to give you your bath when I was in here earlier?” What feeling is the patient most likely to demonstrate? a. Confusion b. Satisfaction that his needs are met c. Humiliation and worthlessness d. Confidence that his request will be granted ANS: C Aggressive communication is highly destructive. Although other emotions like anger may eventually come, the patient most likely feels humiliated first. REF: pp. 35 -36 OBJ: 2 | 3 | 4 10. What does establishing a therapeutic relationship accomplish? a. It facilitates the formation of a trusting relationship. b. It manipulates the patient. c. It assigns the patient a passive role. d. It requires the patient to accNeUptRwShIatNtGheTPBC.TCsOayMs. ANS: A A therapeutic caregiver –patient interaction is one in which the PCT demonstrates caring, sincerity, empathy, and trustworthiness. If the patient senses that the caregiver is not being genuine in conveying these feelings, a therapeutic, trusting relationshi p does not develop. REF: pp. 34 -36 OBJ: 5 11. A PCT tells a patient, “This PM you are going for an abdominal A&P, an H&H, as well as an IV pyelogram. Please sign these consent forms.” What may this use of medical jargon cause? a. Understanding b. Speed in communication c. Misinterpretation d. Clarity in the message ANS: C Jargon is terminology unique to people in a special type of work and is not understood by everyone. Although jargon is clear and speeds communication between those who know it, it may be misinterpreted and not understood by all people, specifically patients. REF: p. 33 OBJ: 4 12. A PCT communicates with a patient by maintaining eye contact and through the use of touch. What type of communication technique is the PCT demonstrating? a. Verbal b. Persuasive c. Directive d. Nonverbal ANS: D Messages transmitted without the use of words (either oral or written) constitute nonverbal communication. Nonverbal cues include tone and rate of voice, volume of speech, eye contact, physical appearance, and use of touch. REF: pp. 33 -35 OBJ: 1 13. Maureen, a PCT, frequently looks at her watch while giving a bed bath to Ms. Jones, a patient. Wha t message is Maureen most likely conveying to Ms. Jones? a. She desires to spend more time with Ms. Jones. b. She is anxious to listen to Ms. Jones’s concerns. c. She is feeling hurried. d. She likes her watch. ANS: C Frequently looking at one’s watch while interacting with a patient conveys to the patient that the PCT is in a hurry and really has no desire to spend time with him or her. REF: pp. 33 -35 OBJ: 1 14. When listening to a patient, what action by the PCT demon strates disinterest and coldness? a. Tightly crossing her arms b. Uncrossing her arms c. Uncrossing her legs d. Facing the patient ANS: A Closed posture is a more formal, distant stance, generally with the arms, and possibly the legs, tightly crossed. A person often interprets closed posture as disinterest, coldness, and even nonacceptance. This may make the patient feel as if the patient care technician does not want to be there. REF: pp. 33 -35 OBJ: 1 | 4 15. How can the PCT demonstrate warmth and acceptance when listening to a patient? a. Tightly crossing her arms b. Uncrossing her arms c. Tightly crossing her legs d. Facing away from the patient ANS: B The way that an individual sits, stands, and moves is called posture. Posture has the potential to convey warmth and acceptance, or distance and disinterest. An open posture is demonstrated with a relaxed stance with uncrossed arms and legs while facing th e other individual. A slight shift in body position toward an individual, a smile, and direct eye contact are all consistent with open posture and convey warmth and caring. Closed posture is a more formal, distant stance, generally with the arms, and possibly the legs, tightly crossed. A person will often interpret closed posture as disinterest, coldness, and even nonacceptance. REF: pp. 33 -35 OBJ: 1 Chapter 05: Understanding the Patient as a Person Townsend: Fundamental Concepts and Skills for the Patient Care Technician, 1st Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A group of people who share some customs and traditions with a larger group, but also have share patterns of behavior different than the larger group are known as what? a. A culture b. A subculture c. A sterotype d. Ethnocentrism ANS: B A subculture shares many characteristics with the primary culture but has characteristic patterns of behavior and ideals that distinguish it from the rest of a cultural group. Culture is a set of learned values, beliefs, cust oms, and practices that are shared by a group and are passed from one generation to another. A stereotype is a generalized expectation about forms of behavior, an individual, or a group. Ethnocentrism is one’s belief that the beliefs and practices of their particular culture are best. REF: p. 54 OBJ: 1 2. While caring for an African American patient the PCT asked if the patient enjoyed hip -hop music. The PCT is demonstrating which of the following? a. Stereotyping b. Ethnocentrism c. Cultural competence d. Transcultural care ANS: A The PCT is assuming the patient’s music preference based on a stereotype; a generalized expectation about forms of behavior, an individual, or a group. Ethnocentrism is one’s belief that the beliefs and practices of their particular culture are best. Cultural competence is the awareness of one’s own cultural beliefs and practices and their relation to those of others, which may be different. Understanding these variables and being able to integrate an understanding into all pieces of one’s care is known as transcultural care. REF: p. 54 OBJ: 2 3. The elderly patient tells the PCT that he doesn’t want “that Asian” taking care of him. Which response from the PCT is most helpful? a. “You can’t say things like that.” b. “He is a great person, you just have to get to know him.” c. “Has he ever hurt you?” d. “Why would you prefer someone else?” ANS: D Asking the patient why allows the PCT to gather more information. The patient may be afraid of the person because they previously caused them harm. Some older adults are less tolerant of other cultures as a result of influences or experiences early in their lives, which raises the possibility of misunderstandings and distrust when the caregiver i s of a cultural group different than the older person. REF: p. 55 OBJ: 2 | 4 4. A patient with Alzheimer’s disease frequently uses racial terms. Which statement by the PCT is most helpful? a. “You need to stop that.” b. “You can’t talk that way.” c. “Let’s talk about something else.” d. “I’m going to tell your daughter you said that.” ANS: C Older people experiencing Alzheimer’s disease or other conditions sometimes speak without regard for the cultural sensitivity of others and thus make hurtful comments to caregivers and other people. It is most helpful to change the conversation. Commands or threats are not helpful. REF: p. 55 OBJ: 2 | 4 5. The PCT is talking to a Spanish -speaking patient. The patient nods, but does not do as the PCT has asked. Why might the patient behave this way? a. The patient is afraid of the PCT. b. The patient doesn’t understand the PCT. c. The patient is bored with thNeUPRCST.INGTB.COM d. The patient is happy and eager to help. ANS: B The most apparent communication variation is the language spoken. When patients do not understand what is being said, they sometimes say yes or nod the head nonetheless, giving the mistaken impressi on of agreeing with the PCT. Many people do this to avoid embarrassment or to be polite. REF: p. 56 OBJ: 2 6. The PCT is working with a Spanish -speaking patient and needs to give specific instructions. Who should the PCT use to translate this information? a. The patient’s adult children b. Another PCT who speaks Spanish c. The patient’s spouse d. A professional interpreter ANS: D The preferred approach is the use of a professional interpreter. Many healthcare facilities have employees on call to translate when a language barrier exists; however, this is not the preferred method of locating a transla tor. If there is a problem locating a translator who is available, the healthcare team may have to work with a family member who is able to translate. Note that this is not ideal, in that it impacts confidentiality surrounding the patient’s care. REF: p. 56 OBJ: 7 7. The PCT is speaking to a patient who does not understand English. The PCT raises her voice in an attempt to be more clear. How might the patient interpret this behavior? a. Clearer communication b. A command to be followed c. Aggression or rudeness d. Helpful communication ANS: C Sometimes, a person speaks loudly to make their point known of the mistaken belief that this helps the receiver of the communication understand better. In fact, it often has the opposite effect of the one desired. Members of some cultures interpret the raised voice as rudeness or aggression and shut out the sound altogether. REF: p. 57 OBJ: 2 | 7 8. The PCT tells the patient that they are NPO. The PCT later observes the patient drinking soda from their family member’s cup. What statement by the PCT is most helpful? a. “I told you that you were NPO.” b. “You can’t have that.” c. “You can’t have anything to eat or drink.” d. “I saw you drink that.” ANS: C Patients may or may not understand health information and abbreviations. Health literacy can make a difference in whether or not the patient follows your directions. It is important to be clear about instructions and explain them if they are misunderstood. Reprimanding or commanding is not helpful. REF: pp. 58 -59 OBJ: 2 | 6 9. Which of the following behaviors may be understood or interpreted differently depending on one’s culture? a. A handshake b. Direct eye contact c. Silence d. All of the above ANS: D All of these behaviors may be interpreted differently depending on the culture of the recipient. Some cultures find handshakes and direct eye contact threatening, and others find silence uncomfortable. REF: pp. 56 -58 OBJ: 2 10. The PCT tells the patient that it is up to them if they don’t want to take a bath right now. This statement respects the patients: a. Autonomy b. Culture c. Values d. Health literacy ANS: A Autonomy is an ethical principle; it refers to freedom of personal choice, a right to be independent and make decisions freely. Culture is a set of learned values, beliefs, customs, and practices that are shared by a group and are passed from one generatio n to another. Values are personal beliefs about the worth of an object, an idea, a custom, or an attitude. Health literacy refers to the individuals understand of medical terminology. REF: p. 67 OBJ: 5 Chapter 06: Patient Rights, Ethics, and Laws Townsend: Fundamental Concepts and Skills for the Patient Care Technician, 1st Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. When a PCT becomes involved in a legal action, one of the first steps to occur is that a document is filed in an appropriate court. What is this document called? a. Deposition b. Appeal c. Complaint d. Summons ANS: C A document called a complaint is filed in an appropriate court as the first step in litigation. A deposition is when witnesses are required to undergo questioning by the attorneys. An appeal is a request for a review of a decision by a higher court. A summons is a court order that notifies the defendant of the legal action. REF: pp. 77 -78 OBJ: 1 2. What are the universal guidelines that define appropriate measures for all nursing intervention s? a. Scope of practice b. Advocacy c. Standard of care d. Prudent practice ANS: C Standards of care define actions that are permitted or prohibited in most nursing interventions. These standards are accepted as legal guidelines for appropriateness of performance. The laws that formally define and limit the scope of nursing practice are called nurse practice acts. An advocate is one who defends or pleads a cause or issue on behalf of another. Prudent is a term that refers to careful and/or wise practice. REF: p. 76 OBJ: 3 3. A nurse is told to perform a task that she thinks is outside of her scope of practice. To what law should she refer before initiating the task? a. Standards of care b. Regulation of practice c. American Nurses Association Code d. Nurse practice act ANS: D It is the nurse’s responsibility to know the nurse practice act in his or her state. Standards of care, regulation of practice, and the American Nurses Association code are not laws that the nurse should refer to before initiating treatment in the scenario described here. REF: pp. 76 -80 OBJ: 3 4. A PCT fails to reposition a patient as ordered, resulting in harm to the patient. This PCT could be found guilty of a. malpractice. b. abandonment of care. c. negligence. d. failure to follow the nurse practice act. ANS: A The PCT can be held liable for malpractice for acts of omission. Failure to meet a legal duty, thus causing harm to another, is malpractice. Negligence refers to the failure to act in a manner demonstrating the care and knowledge any prudent individual would. REF: p. 77 OBJ: 4 5. The nurse is preparing the patient for thoracentesis. The PCT is aware that the following must be obtained prior to an invasive treatment being performed: a. Physical assessment b. Interview c. Informed consent d. Blood typing ANS: C The doctrine of informed consent refers to full disclosure of the facts t he patient needs to make an intelligent (informed) decision before any invasive treatment or procedure is performed. A physical assessment, interview, and blood typing are not required before this procedure. REF: p. 81 OBJ: 2 6. When a PCT protects the information in a patient’s record, what duty is the PCT fulfilling? a. Privacy b. Disclosure c. Confidentiality d. Absolute secrecy ANS: C Patient care technicians have a duty to protect information about a patient regardless of how the information is kep t. Information should be accessed only on a need -to-know basis. Some disclosures are legal and anticipated, and may not be subject to the rules of confidentiality. None of the information in a chart is considered secret. REF: pp. 81 -83 OBJ: 4 7. An older adult is admitted to the hospital with numerous bodily bruises, and the PCT suspects elder abuse. What is the best action? a. Cover the bruises with bandages. b. Take photographs of the bruises. c. Ask the patient if anyone has hit her. d. Report the bruises to the charge nurse. ANS: D The law stipulates that the healthcare professional is required to report certain information to the appropriate authorities. The report should be given to a supervisor or directly to the police, according to agency policy. When acting in good faith to rep ort mandated information (e.g., certain communicable diseases or gunshot wounds), the healthcare professional is protected from liability. REF: pp. 83 -84 OBJ: 10 8. What is the best way for a PCT to avoid a lawsuit? a. Carry malpractice insurance b. Spend time with the patient c. Provide compassionate, competent care d. Answer all call lights quickly ANS: C The best defense against a lawsuit is to provide compassionate and competent care. Carrying malpractice insurance is prudent, but it will not avoid a lawsuit. Spending time with patients and answering call lights quickly will not necessarily help avoid a lawsuit. REF: p. 84 OBJ: 6 9. The PCT is caring for a patient with a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order. Even if the PCT disagrees with the order, what is his or her legal obligation? a. To question the doctor b. To seek advice from the family c. To discuss it with the patient d. To follow the order ANS: D When a DNR order is written in the chart, the PCT has a duty to follow the order. Questioning the doctor, seeking advice from the family, and discussing it with the patient are not legal obligations of the nurse. REF: p. 88 OBJ: 7 10. The PCT has strong moral convictions that abortions are wrong. When assigned to assist with an abortion, what is the most appropriate action for the PCT to take? a. Ask for another assignment b. Leave work c. Transfer to another floor d. Protest to the supervisor ANS: A If the patient care technician has a strong moral or religious belief regarding abortion, these concerns must be communicated with the charge nurse. Do not abandon the patient; instead, ask for another assignment. REF: p. 88 OBJ: 11 11. The PCT is concerne d regarding what should or should not be done for patients. What resource will best provide this information? a. Nurse practice act b. Standards of care c. Scope of nursing practice d. Professional organizations ANS: B Standards of care define acts whose performance is required, permitted, or prohibited. These standards of care derive from federal and state laws, rules, and regulations and codes that govern other professional agencies and organizations. They define the obligations of the nurse, inclu ding those activities that are obligation and those that are prohibited. REF: pp. 76-80| p. 84 OBJ: 3 12. When asked to perform a procedure that he or she has never done before, what should the PCT do to legally protect himself or herself? a. Go ahead and do it b. Refuse to perform it, citing lack of knowledge c. Discuss it with the charge nurse, asking for direction d. Ask another nurse who has performed the procedure ANS: C If the nurse asks you to perform a procedure that you are unfamiliar with, be sure to seek assistance from the nurse prior to attempting it. It is the patient care technician’s responsibility to seek additional instruction and supervision when faced with a n unfamiliar practice or procedure. The patient care technician may need to ask the nurse to demonstrate an unfamiliar procedure. REF: p. 79 OBJ: 11 13. Which is an error that violates the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)? a. Administering a stronger dose of drug than was ordered b. Refusing to give a patient’s daughter information over the phone c. Informing the patient’s medical power of attorney of a medication change d. Leaving a copy of the patient’s history and physical in the photocopier ANS: D Leaving the document in the photocopier could expose it to the public. Inappropriate drug administration is possible malpractice. Sharing information with the power of attorney is legal. Refusing to give a patient’s daughter information over the phone is appropriate practice. REF: p. 83 OBJ: 5 14. A lumbar puncture was performed on a patient without a signed informed consent form. This patient might sue for a. punitive damages. b. civil battery. c. assault. d. nothing; no violation has occurred. ANS: B Civil battery charges can be brought against someone performing an invasive procedure without the patient’s informed consent legally documented. This patient could not sue for punitive damages or an assault. REF: p. 78 | Box 6.3 OBJ: 4 15. A physician instructs the nurse to bladder train a patient. The nurse clamps the patient’s indwelling urinary catheter but forgets to unclamp it. The patient develops a urinary tract infection. What do the nurse’s actions exemplify? a. Malpractice b. Battery c. Assault d. Neglect of duty ANS: A A nurse is liable for acts of commission (doing an act) and omission (not doing an act) performed in the course of his or her professional duties. A charge of malpractice can be made when a duty exists, there is a breach of that duty, harm has occurred to the patient, and the breach of duty is the proximate cause of that harm. REF: p. 78 OBJ: 4 16. What is true about nurse practice acts? a. They informally define the scope of nursing practice. b. They provide for unlimited scope of nursing practice. c. Only some states have adopted a nurse practice act. d. The nurse must know the nurse practice act within his or her state. ANS: D The laws formally defining and limiting the scope of nursing practice are called nurse practice acts. All state, provincial, and territorial legislatures in the United States and Canada have adopted nurse practice acts, although the specifics they contain often var y. It is the nurse’s responsibility to know the nurse practice act that is in effect for her geographic region. REF: p. 76| p. 79 OBJ: 1