(Test Bank) ALL HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank updated 2022/2023

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ALL HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank updated 2022 HESI Fundamentals Exam, Answered An elderly client with a fractured left hip is on strict bedrest. Which nursing measure is essential to the client's nursing care? A. Massage any reddened areas for at least fi ve minutes. B. Encourage active range of motion exercises on extremities. C. Position the client laterally, prone, and dorsally in sequence. D. Gently lift the client when moving into a desired position. - To avoid shearing forces when repositioning, the client should be lifted gently across a surface (D). Reddened areas should not be massaged (A) since this may increase the damage to already traumatized skin. To control pain and muscle spasms, active range of motion (B) may be limited on the affected leg. The position described in (C) is contraindicated for a client with a fractured left hip. Correct Answer: D The nurse is administering medications through a nasogastric tube (NGT) which is connected to suction. After ensuring correct tube placement, what action should the nurse take next? A. Clamp the tube for 20 minutes. B. Flush the tube with water. C. Administer the medications as prescribed. D. Crush the tablets and dissolve in sterile water. - The NGT should be flushed before, after and i n between each medication administered (B). Once all medications are administered, the NGT should be clamped for 20 minutes (A). (C and D) may be implemented only after the tubing has been flushed. Correct Answer: B A client who is in hospice care compla ins of increasing amounts of pain. The healthcare provider prescribes an analgesic every four hours as needed. Which action should the nurse implement? A. Give an around -the-clock schedule for administration of analgesics. B. Administer analgesic medica tion as needed when the pain is severe. C. Provide medication to keep the client sedated and unaware of stimuli. D. Offer a medication -free period so that the client can do daily activities. - The most effective management of pain is achieved using an around -the-clock schedule that provides analgesic medications on a regular basis (A) and in a timely manner. Analgesics are less effective if pain persists until it is severe, so an analgesic medication should be administered before the client's pain peaks (B). Providing comfort is a priority for the client who is dying, but sedation that impairs the client's ability to interact and experience the time before life ends should be minimized (C). Offering a medication -free period allows the serum drug level to fall, which is not an effective method to manage chronic pain (D). Correct Answer: A When assessing a client with wrist restraints, the nurse observes that the fingers on the right hand are blue. What action should the nurse implement first? A. Loosen the right wrist restraint. B. Apply a pulse oximeter to the right hand. C. Compare hand color bilaterally. D. Palpate the right radial pulse. - The priority nursing action is to restore circulation by loosening the restraint (A), because blue fingers (cyanosis) indicates decreased circulation. (C and D) are also important nursing interventions, but do not have the priority of (A). Pulse oximetry (B) measures the saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen and is not indicated in situations where the cyanosis is related to mechanical compression (the restraints). Correct Answer: A The nurse is assessing the nutritional status of several clients. Which client has the greatest nutritional need for additional intake of protein? A. A college -age track runner wi th a sprained ankle. B. A lactating woman nursing her 3 -day-old infant. C. A school -aged child with Type 2 diabetes. D. An elderly man being treated for a peptic ulcer. - A lactating woman (B) has the greatest need for additional protein intake. (A, C, and D) are all conditions that require protein, but do not have the increased metabolic protein demands of lactation. Correct Answer: B A client is in the radiology department at 0900 when the prescription levofloxacin (Levaquin) 500 mg IV q24h is sch eduled to be administered. The client returns to the unit at 1300. What is the best intervention for the nurse to implement? A. Contact the healthcare provider and complete a medication variance form. B. Administer the Levaquin at 1300 and resume the 09 00 schedule in the morning. C. Notify the charge nurse and complete an incident report to explain the missed dose. D. Give the missed dose at 1300 and change the schedule to administer daily at 1300. - To ensure that a therapeutic level of medication i s maintained, the nurse should administer the missed dose as soon as possible, and revise the administration schedule accordingly to prevent dangerously increasing the level of the medication in the bloodstream (D). The nurse should document the reason for the late dose, but (A and C) are not warranted. (B) could result in increased blood levels of the drug. Correct Answer: D While instructing a male client's wife in the performance of passive range -of-motion exercises to his contracted shoulder, the nurs e observes that she is holding his arm above and below the elbow. What nursing action should the nurse implement? A. Acknowledge that she is supporting the arm correctly. B. Encourage her to keep the joint covered to maintain warmth. C. Reinforce the need to grip directly under the joint for better support. D. Instruct her to grip directly over the joint for better motion. - The wife is performing the passive ROM correctly, therefore the nurse should acknowledge this fact (A). The joint that is being exercised should be uncovered (B) while the rest of the body should remain covered for warmth and privacy. (C and D) do not provide adequate support to the joint while still allowing for joint movement. Correct Answer: A What is the most important reaso n for starting intravenous infusions in the upper extremities rather than the lower extremities of adults? A. It is more difficult to find a superficial vein in the feet and ankles. B. A decreased flow rate could result in the formation of a thrombosis. C. A cannulated extremity is more difficult to move when the leg or foot is used. D. Veins are located deep in the feet and ankles, resulting in a more painful procedure. - Venous return is usually better in the upper extremities. Cannulation of the v eins in the lower extremities increases the risk of thrombus formation (B) which, if dislodged, could be life -threatening. Superficial veins are often very easy (A) to find in the feet and legs. Handling a leg or foot with an IV (C) is probably not any mor e difficult than handling an arm or hand. Even if the nurse did believe moving a cannulated leg was more difficult, this is not the most important reason for using the upper extremities. Pain (D) is not a consideration. Correct Answer: B The nurse observ es an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) taking a client's blood pressure with a cuff that is too small, but the blood pressure reading obtained is within the client's usual range. What action is most important for the nurse to implement? A. Tell the UA P to use a larger cuff at the next scheduled assessment. B. Reassess the client's blood pressure using a larger cuff. C. Have the unit educator review this procedure with the UAPs. D. Teach the UAP the correct technique for assessing blood pressure. - The most important action is to ensure that an accurate BP reading is obtained. The nurse should reassess the BP with the correct size cuff (B). Reassessment should not be postponed (A). Though (C and D) are likely indicated, these actions do not have th e priority of (B). Correct Answer: B A client is to receive cimetidine (Tagamet) 300 mg q6h IVPB. The preparation arrives from the pharmacy diluted in 50 ml of 0.9% NaCl. The nurse plans to administer the IVPB dose over 20 minutes. For how many ml/hr sho uld the infusion pump be set to deliver the secondary infusion? - The infusion rate is calculated as a ratio proportion problem, i.e., 50 ml/ 20 min : x ml/ 60 min. Multiply extremes and means 50 × 60 /20x 1= 300/20=150 Correct Answer: 150 Twenty minutes after beginning a heat application, the client states that the heating pad no longer feels warm enough. What is the best response by the nurse? A. That means you have derived the maximum benefit, and the heat can be removed. B. Your blood vessels are b ecoming dilated and removing the heat from the site. C. We will increase the temperature 5 degrees when the pad no longer feels warm. D. The body's receptors adapt over time as they are exposed to heat. - (D) describes thermal adaptation, which occurs 20 to 30 minutes after heat application. (A and B) provide false information. (C) is not based on a knowledge of physiology and is an unsafe action that may harm the client. Correct Answer: D The nurse is instructing a client with high cholesterol about diet and life style modification. What comment from the client indicates that the teaching has been effective? A. If I exercise at least two times weekly for one hour, I will lower my cholesterol. B. I need to avoid eating proteins, including red meat. C. I will limit my intake of beef to 4 ounces per week. D. My blood level of low density lipoproteins needs to increase. - Limiting saturated fat from animal food sources to no more than 4 ounces per week (C) is an important diet modification for lower ing cholesterol. To be effective in reducing cholesterol, the client should exercise 30 minutes per day, or at least 4 to 6 times per week (A). Red meat and all proteins do not need to be eliminated (B) to lower cholesterol, but should be restricted to lea n cuts of red meat and smaller portions (2 -ounce servings). The low density lipoproteins (D) need to decrease rather than increase. Correct Answer: C The UAPs working on a chronic neuro unit ask the nurse to help them determine the safest way to transfer an elderly client with left -sided weakness from the bed to the chair. What method describes the correct transfer procedure for this client? A. Place the chair at a right angle to the bed on the client's left side before moving. B. Assist the client to a standing position, then place the right hand on the armrest. C. Have the client place the left foot next to the chair and pivot to the left before sitting. D. Move the chair parallel to the right side of the bed, and stand the client on the right foot. - (D) uses the client's stronger side, the right side, for weight -bearing during the transfer, and is the safest approach to take. (A, B, and C) are unsafe methods of transfer and include the use of poor body mechanics by the caregiver. Correct Answer: D An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) places a client in a left lateral position prior to administering a soap suds enema. Which instruction should the nurse provide the UAP? A. Position the client on the right side of the bed in reverse Trendelenbu rg. B. Fill the enema container with 1000 ml of warm water and 5 ml of castile soap. C. Reposition in a Sim's position with the client's weight on the anterior ilium. D. Raise the side rails on both sides of the bed and elevate the bed to waist level . - The left sided Sims' position allows the enema solution to follow the anatomical course of the intestines and allows the best overall results, so the UAP should reposition the client in the Sims' position, which distributes the client's weight to the a nterior ilium (C). (A) is inaccurate. (B and D) should be implemented once the client is positioned. Correct Answer: C A client who is a Jehovah's Witness is admitted to the nursing unit. Which concern should the nurse have for planning care in terms of the client's beliefs? A. Autopsy of the body is prohibited. B. Blood transfusions are forbidden. C. Alcohol use in any form is not allowed. D. A vegetarian diet must be followed. - Blood transfusions are forbidden (B) in the Jehovah's Witness religi on. Judaism prohibits (A). Buddhism forbids the use of (C) and drugs. Many of these sects are vegetarian (D), but the direct impact on nursing care is (B). Correct Answer: B The nurse observes that a male client has removed the covering from an ice pack applied to his knee. What action should the nurse take first? A. Observe the appearance of the skin under the ice pack. B. Instruct the client regarding the need for the covering. C. Reapply the covering after filling with fresh ice. D. Ask the clie nt how long the ice was applied to the skin. - The first action taken by the nurse should be to assess the skin for any possible thermal injury (A). If no injury to the skin has occurred, the nurse can take the other actions (B, C, and D) as needed. Corre ct Answer: A The nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive? A. 31 gt t/min. B. 62 gtt/min. C. 93 gtt/min. D. 124 gtt/min. - (D) is the correct calculation: Convert lbs to kg: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Determine the dosage for this client: 5 mcg × 82.73 = 413.65 mcg/min. Determine how many mcg are contained in 1 ml: 250/50,0 00 mcg = 200 mcg per ml. The client is to receive 413.65 mcg/min, and there are 200 mcg/ml; so the client is to receive 2.07ml per minute. With a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, then 60 × 2.07 = 124.28 gtt/min (D) OR, using dimensional analysis: gtt/min = 60 gtt /ml X 250 ml/50 mg X 1 mg/1,000 mcg X 5 mcg/kg/min X 1 kg/2.2 lbs X 182 lbs. Correct Answer: D A hospitalized male client is receiving nasogastric tube feedings via a small -bore tube and a continuous pump infusion. He reports that he had a bad bout of se vere coughing a few minutes ago, but feels fine now. What action is best for the nurse to take? A. Record the coughing incident. No further action is required at this time. B. Stop the feeding, explain to the family why it is being stopped, and notify t he healthcare provider. C. After clearing the tube with 30 ml of air, check the pH of fluid withdrawn from the tube. D. Inject 30 ml of air into the tube while auscultating the epigastrium for gurgling. - Coughing, vomiting, and suctioning can precipit ate displacement of the tip of the small bore feeding tube upward into the esophagus, placing the client at increased risk for aspiration. Checking the sample of fluid withdrawn from the tube (after clearing the tube with 30 ml of air) for acidic (stomach) or alkaline (intestine) values is a more sensitive method for these tubes, and the nurse should assess tube placement in this way prior to taking any other action (C). (A and B) are not indicated. The auscultating method (D) has been found to be unreliabl e for small -bore feeding tubes. Correct Answer: C A male client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline tells the nurse that he understands he is to take three doses of the medication each day. Since, at the time of disch arge, timed -release capsules are not available, which dosing schedule should the nurse advise the client to follow? A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m. B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight. C. Before breakfast, before lunch and before dinner. D. With breakfast , with lunch, and with dinner. - Theophylline should be administered on a regular around -the-clock schedule (B) to provide the best bronchodilating effect and reduce the potential for adverse effects. (A, C, and D) do not provide around -the- clock dosing. F ood may alter absorption of the medication (D). Correct Answer: B A client is to receive 10 mEq of KCl diluted in 250 ml of normal saline over 4 hours. At what rate should the nurse set the client's intravenous infusion pump? A. 13 ml/hour. B. 63 ml/h our. C. 80 ml/hour. D. 125 ml/hour. - (B) is the correct calculation: To calculate this problem correctly, remember that the dose of KCl is not used in the calculation. 250 ml/4 hours = 63 ml/hour. Correct Answer: B An obese male client discusses wit h the nurse his plans to begin a long -term weight loss regimen. In addition to dietary changes, he plans to begin an intensive aerobic exercise program 3 to 4 times a week and to take stress management classes. After praising the client for his decision, w hich instruction is most important for the nurse to provide? A. Be sure to have a complete physical examination before beginning your planned exercise program. B. Be careful that the exercise program doesn't simply add to your stress level, making you w ant to eat more. C. Increased exercise helps to reduce stress, so you may not need to spend money on a stress management class. D. Make sure to monitor your weight loss regularly to provide a sense of accomplishment and motivation. - The most important teaching is (A), so that the client will not begin a dangerous level of exercise when he is not sufficiently fit. This might result in chest pain, a heart attack, or stroke. (B, C, and D) are important instructions, but are of less priority than (A). Correct Answer: A The nurse is teaching a client proper use of an inhaler. When should the client administer the inhaler -delivered medication to demonstrate correct use of the inhaler? A. Immediately after exhalation. B. During the inhalation. C. At the end of three inhalations. D. Immediately after inhalation. - The client should be instructed to deliver the medication during the last part of inhalation (B). After the medication is delivered, the client should remove the mouthpiece, keeping his/her li ps closed and breath held for several seconds to allow for distribution of the medication. The client should not deliver the dose as stated in (A or D), and should deliver no more than two inhalations at a time (C). Correct Answer: B The healthcare provi der prescribes the diuretic metolazone (Zaroxolyn) 7.5 mg PO. Zaroxolyn is available in 5 mg tablets. How much should the nurse plan to administer? A. ½ tablet. B. 1 tablet. C. 1½ tablets. D. 2 tablets. - (C) is the correct calculation: D/H × Q = 7. 5/5 × 1 tablet = 1½ tablets. Correct Answer: C The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide (Lasix) 15 mg IV stat. On hand is Lasix 20 mg/2 ml. How many milliliters should the nurse administer? A. 1 ml. B. 1.5 ml. C. 1.75 ml. D. 2 ml. - (B) is th e correct calculation: Dosage on hand/amount on hand = Dosage desired/x amount. 20 mg : 2 ml = 15 mg : x . 20x = 30. x = 30/20; = 1½ or 1.5 ml. Correct Answer: B Heparin 20,000 units in 500 ml D5W at 50 ml/hour has been infusing for 5½ hours. How much he parin has the client received? A. 11,000 units. B. 13,000 units. C. 15,000 units. D. 17,000 units. - (A) is the correct calculation: 20,000 units/500 ml = 40 units (the amount of units in one ml of fluid). 40 units/ml x 50 ml/hr = 2,000 units/hour ( 1,000 units in 1/2 hour). 5.5 x 2,000 = 11,000 (A). OR, multiply 5 x 2,000 and add the 1/2 hour amount of 1,000 to reach the same conclusion = 11,000 units. Correct Answer: A The healthcare provider prescribes morphine sulfate 4mg IM STAT. Morphine comes in 8 mg per ml. How many ml should the nurse administer? A. 0.5 ml. B. 1 ml. C. 1.5 ml. D. 2 ml. - Using ratio and proportion: 8mg: 1ml :: 4mg:Xml 8X=4 X=0.5 Correct Answer: A The nurse prepares a 1,000 ml IV of 5% dextrose and water to be inf used over 8 hours. The infusion set delivers 10 drops per milliliter. The nurse should regulate the IV to administer approximately how many drops per minute? A. 80 B. 8 C. 21 D. 25 - The accepted formula for figuring drops per minute is: amount to b e infused in one hour × drop factor/time for infusion (min)= drops per minute. Using this formula: 1,000/8 hours = 125 ml/ hour 125 × 10 (drip factor) = 1,250 drops in one hour. 1,250/ 60 (number of minutes in one hour) = 20.8 or 21 gtt/min (C). Correct A nswer: C Which action is most important for the nurse to implement when donning sterile gloves? A. Maintain thumb at a ninety degree angle. B. Hold hands with fingers down while gloving. C. Keep gloved hands above the elbows. D. Put the glove on th e dominant hand first. - Gloved hands held below waist level are considered unsterile (C). (A and B) are not essential to maintaining asepsis. While it may be helpful to put the glove on the dominant hand first, it is not necessary to ensure asepsis (D). Correct Answer: C A client's infusion of normal saline infiltrated earlier today, and approximately 500 ml of saline infused into the subcutaneous tissue. The client is now complaining of excruciating arm pain and demanding "stronger pain medications." Wh at initial action is most important for the nurse to take? A. Ask about any past history of drug abuse or addiction. B. Measure the pulse volume and capillary refill distal to the infiltration. C. Compress the infiltrated tissue to measure the degree of edema. D. Evaluate the extent of ecchymosis over the forearm area. - Pain and diminished pulse volume (B) are signs of compartment syndrome, which can progress to complete loss of the peripheral pulse in the extremity. Compartment syndrome occurs when external pressure (usually from a cast), or internal pressure (usually from subcutaneous infused fluid), exceeds capillary perfusion pressure resulting in decreased blood flow to the extremity. (A) should not be pursued until physical causes of the pain a re ruled out. (C) is of less priority than determining the effects of the edema on circulation and nerve function. Further assessment of the client's ecchymosis can be delayed until the signs of edema and compression that suggest compartment syndrome have been examined (D). Correct Answer: B An elderly male client who is unresponsive following a cerebral vascular accident (CVA) is receiving bolus enteral feedings though a gastrostomy tube. What is the best client position for administration of the bolus t ube feedings? A. Prone. B. Fowler's. C. Sims'. D. Supine. - The client should be positioned in a semi -sitting (Fowler's) (B) position during feeding to decrease the occurrence of aspiration. A gastrostomy tube, known as a PEG tube, due to placement by a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy procedure, is inserted directly into the stomach through an incision in the abdomen for long -term administration of nutrition and hydration in the debilitated client. In (A and/or C), the client is placed on the abd omen, an unsafe position for feeding. Placing the client in (D) increases the risk of aspiration. Correct Answer: B A 73 -year-old female client had a hemiarthroplasty of the left hip yesterday due to a fracture resulting from a fall. In reviewing hip pre cautions with the client, which instruction should the nurse include in this client's teaching plan? A. In 8 weeks you will be able to bend at the waist to reach items on the floor. B. Place a pillow between your knees while lying in bed to prevent hip dislocation. C. It is safe to use a walker to get out of bed, but you need assistance when walking. D. Take pain medication 30 minutes after your physical therapy sessions. - The client's affected hip joint following a hemiarthroplasty (partial hip rep lacement) is at risk of dislocation for 6 months to a year following the procedure. Hip precautions to prevent dislocation include placing a pillow between the knees to maintain abduction of the hips (B). Clients should be instructed to avoid bending at th e waist (A), to seek assistance for both standing and walking until they are stable on a walker or cane (C), and to take pain medication 20 to 30 minutes prior to physical therapy sessions, rather than waiting until the pain level is high after their thera py. Correct Answer: B A client with pneumonia has a decrease in oxygen saturation from 94% to 88% while ambulating. Based on these findings, which intervention should the nurse implement first? A. Assist the ambulating client back to the bed. B. Encou rage the client to ambulate to resolve pneumonia. C. Obtain a prescription for portable oxygen while ambulating. D. Move the oximetry probe from the finger to the earlobe. - An oxygen saturation below 90% indicates inadequate oxygenation. First, the cl ient should be assisted to return to bed (A) to minimize oxygen demands. Ambulation increases aeration of the lungs to prevent pooling of respiratory secretions, but the client's activity at this time is depleting oxygen saturation of the blood, so (B) is contraindicated. Increased activity increases respiratory effort, and oxygen may be necessary to continue ambulation (C), but first the client should return to bed to rest. Oxygen saturation levels at different sites should be evaluated after the client re turns to bed (D). Correct Answer: A A client with chronic renal failure selects a scrambled egg for his breakfast. What action should the nurse take? A. Commend the client for selecting a high biologic value protein. B. Remind the client that protein in the diet should be avoided. C. Suggest that the client also select orange juice, to promote absorption. D. Encourage the client to attend classes on dietary management of CRF. - Foods such as eggs and milk (A) are high biologic proteins which are al lowed because they are complete proteins and supply the essential amino acids that are necessary for growth and cell repair. Although a low -protein diet is followed (B), some protein is essential. Orange juice is rich in potassium, and should not be encour aged (C). The client has made a good diet choice, so (D) is not necessary. Correct Answer: A A client who is 5' 5" tall and weighs 200 pounds is scheduled for surgery the next day. What question is most important for the nurse to include during the preop erative assessment? A. What is your daily calorie consumption? B. What vitamin and mineral supplements do you take? C. Do you feel that you are overweight? D. Will a clear liquid diet be okay after surgery? - Vitamin and mineral supplements (B) may impact medications used during the operative period. (A and C) are appropriate questions for long -term dietary counseling. The nature of the surgery and anesthesia will determine the need for a clear liquid diet (D), rather than the client's preference. Correct Answer: B During the initial morning assessment, a male client denies dysuria but reports that his urine appears dark amber. Which intervention should the nurse implement? A. Provide additional coffee on the client's breakfast tray. B. Exchange the client's grape juice for cranberry juice. C. Bring the client additional fruit at mid -morning. D. Encourage additional oral intake of juices and water. - Dark amber urine is characteristic of fluid volume deficit, and the client should be encourage d to increase fluid intake (D). Caffeine, however, is a diuretic (A), and may worsen the fluid volume deficit. Any type of juice will be beneficial (B), since the client is not dysuric, a sign of an urinary tract infection. The client needs to restore flui d volume more than solid foods (C). Correct Answer: D Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement for a male client who is experiencing urinary retention? A. Apply a condom catheter. B. Apply a skin protectant. C. Encourage incre ased fluid intake. D. Assess for bladder distention. - Urinary retention is the inability to void all urine collected in the bladder, which leads to uncomfortable bladder distention (D). (A and B) are useful actions to protect the skin of a client with u rinary incontinence. (C) may worsen the bladder distention. Correct Answer: D A client with acute hemorrhagic anemia is to receive four units of packed RBCs (red blood cells) as rapidly as possible. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement? A. Obtain the pre -transfusion hemoglobin level. B. Prime the tubing and prepare a blood pump set -up. C. Monitor vital signs q15 minutes for the first hour. D. Ensure the accuracy of the blood type match. - All interventions should be imple mented prior to administering blood, but (D) has the highest priority. Any time blood is administered, the nurse should ensure the accuracy of the blood type match in order to prevent a possible hemolytic reaction. Correct Answer: D Which snack food is b est for the nurse to provide a client with myasthenia gravis who is at risk for altered nutritional status? A. Chocolate pudding. B. Graham crackers. C. Sugar free gelatin. D. Apple slices. - The client with myasthenia gravis is at high risk for alt ered nutrition because of fatigue and muscle weakness resulting in dysphagia. Snacks that are semisolid, such as pudding (A) are easy to swallow and require minimal chewing effort, and provide calories and protein. (C) does not provide any nutritional valu e. (B and D) require energy to chew and are more difficult to swallow than pudding. Correct Answer: A The nurse is evaluating client learning about a low -sodium diet. Selection of which meal would indicate to the nurse that this client understands the di etary restrictions? A. Tossed salad, low -sodium dressing, bacon and tomato sandwich. B. New England clam chowder, no -salt crackers, fresh fruit salad. C. Skim milk, turkey salad, roll, and vanilla ice cream. D. Macaroni and cheese, diet Coke, a slic e of cherry pie. - Skim milk, turkey, bread, and ice cream (C), while containing some sodium, are considered low -sodium foods. Bacon (A), canned soups (B), especially those with seafood, hard cheeses, macaroni, and most diet drinks (D) are very high in sod ium. Correct Answer: C Which nutritional assessment data should the nurse collect to best reflect total muscle mass in an adolescent? A. Height in inches or centimeters. B. Weight in kilograms or pounds. C. Triceps skin fold thickness. D. Upper ar m circumference. - Upper arm circumference (D) is an indirect measure of muscle mass. (A and B) do not distinguish between fat (adipose) and muscularity. (C) is a measure of body fat. Correct Answer: D An elderly resident of a long -term care facility is no longer able to perform self -care and is becoming progressively weaker. The resident previously requested that no resuscitative efforts be performed, and the family requests hospice care. What action should the nurse implement first? A. Reaffirm the cli ent's desire for no resuscitative efforts. B. Transfer the client to a hospice inpatient facility. C. Prepare the family for the client's impending death. D. Notify the healthcare provider of the family's request. - The nurse should first communicate with the healthcare provider (D). Hospice care is provided for clients with a limited life expectancy, which must be identified by the healthcare provider. (A) is not