(Test Bank) HESI A2 Health Information Systems Test Bank Complete Test Preparation

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HESI A2 Health Information Systems Test Bank Complete Test Preparation Getting Started CONGRATULATIONS! By deciding to take the Health Education Systems (HESI A2) Exam, you have taken the first step toward a great future! Of course, there is no point in taking this important examination unless you intend to do your very best in order to earn the highest grade you possibly can. That means getting yourself organized and discovering the best approaches, methods and strategies to master the material. Yes, that will require real effort and dedication on your part but if you are willing to focus your energy and devote the study time necessary, before you know it you will be opening that letter of acceptance to the school of your dreams. We know that taking on a new endeavour can be a little scary, and it is easy to feel unsure of where to begin. That’s where we come in. This study guide is designed to help you improve your test-taking skills, show you a few tricks of the trade and increase both your competency and confidence. The Health Education Systems A2 Exam The HESI A2 exam is composed of modules and not all schools use all of the modules. It is therefore very important that you find out what modules your school will use! That way you won’t waste valuable study time learning something that isn’t on your exam! The HESI A2 Modules are: Math, Vocabulary, Reading Comprehension, Biology, Chemistry, Physics, Basic Scientific principals and Anatomy and Physiology. You don`t have to worry because these sections are included in the Practice Test Questions. However, to maximize your study time, it is very important to check which modules your university offers before studying everything under the sun! While we seek to make our guide as comprehensive as possible, it is important to note that like all entrance exams, the HESI A2 Exam might be adjusted at some future point. New material might be added, or content that is no longer relevant or applicable might be removed. It is always a good idea to give the materials you receive when you register to take the HESI a careful review. Practice Test Questions Set 1 Section I – Reading Comprehension Questions: 45 Time: 45 Minutes Section II – Mathematics Questions: 50 Time: 60 Minutes Section III – Part 1 - English Grammar (optional) Questions: 50 Time: 50 Minutes Section III - Part II – Vocabulary Questions: 50 Time: 50 Minutes Section IV – Part I – Science (optional) Questions: 50 Time: 50 mi nutes Section IV – Part II – Anatomy & Physiology (optional) Questions: 50 Time: 50 minutes The practice test portion presents questions that are representative of the type of question you should expect to find on the HESI. For the best results, take this Practice Test as if it were the real exam. Set aside time when you will not be disturbed, and a location that is quiet and free of distractions. Read the instructions carefully, read each question carefully, and answer to the best o f your ability. Use the bubble answer sheets provided. When you have completed the Practice Test, check your answer against the Answer Key and read the explanation provided. NOTE: The Science, Anatomy and Physiology and English sections are optional. Check with your school for exam details. Answer Sheet – Section 1 - Reading Comprehension Answer Sheet – Section II - Math Answer Sheet – Section III Part I - English Grammar Answer Sheet – Section III Part II – Vocabulary Answer Sheet – Section IV Part I – Biology and Chemistry Answer Sheet – Section IV Part I – Anatomy and Physiology SECTION I - READING COMPREHENSION. Directions: The following questions are b ased on a number of reading passages. Each passage is followed by a series of questions. Read each passage carefully, and then answer the questions based on it. You may reread the passage as often as you wish. When you have finished answering the questions based on one passage, go right on to the next passage. Choose the best answer based on the information given and implied. Questions 1 – 4 refer to the following passage. Passage 1 - Infectious Disease An infectious disease is a clinically evident illness resulting from the presence of pathogenic agents, such as viruses, bacteria, fungi, protozoa, multi-cellular parasites, and unusual proteins known as prions. Infectious pathologies are also called commu nicable diseases or transmissible diseases, due to their potential of transmission from one person or species to another by a replicating agent (as opposed to a toxin). Transmission of an infectious disease can occur in many different ways. Physical contact, liquids, food, body fluids, contaminated objects, and airborne inhalation can all transmit infecting agents. Transmissible diseases that occur through contact with an ill person, or objects touched by them, are especially infective, and are sometimes referred to as contagious diseases. Communicable diseases that require a more specialized route of infection, such as through blood or needle transmission, or sexual transmission, are usually not regarded as contagious. The term infectivity describes the ability of an organism to enter, survive and multiply in the host, while the infectiousness of a disease indicates the comparative ease with which the disease is transmitted. An infection however, is not synonymous with an infectious disease, as an infection may not cause important clinical symptoms. 1 1. What can we infer from the first paragraph in this passage? a. Sickness from a toxin can be easily transmitted from one person to another. b. Sickness from an infectious disease can be easily transmitted from one person to another. c. Few sicknesses are transmitted from one person to another. d. Infectious diseases are easily treated. 2. What are two other names for infections’ pathologies? a. Communicable diseases or transmissible diseases b. Communicable diseases or terminal diseases c. Transmissible diseases or preventable diseases d. Communicative diseases or unstable diseases 3. What does infectivity describe? a. The inability of an organism to multiply in the host b. The inability of an organism to reproduce c. The ability of an organism to enter, survive and multiply in the host d. The ability of an organism to reproduce in the host 4. How do we know an infection is not synonymous with an infectious disease? a. Because an infectious disease destroys infections with enough time. b. Because an infection may not cause important clinical symptoms or impair host function. c. We do not. The two are synonymous. d. Because an infection is too fatal to be an infectious disease. Questions 5 – 8 refer to the following passage. Passage 2 - Viruses A virus (from the Latin virus meaning toxin or poison) is a small infectious agent that can replicate only inside the living cells of other organisms. Most viruses are too small to be seen directly with a microscope. Viruses infect all types of organisms, from animals and plants to bacteria and single -celled organisms. Unlike prions and viroids, viruses consist of two or three parts: all viruses have genes made from either DNA or RNA, all have a protein coat that protects these genes, and some have an envelope of fat that surrounds them when they are outside a cell. (Viroids do not have a protein coat and prions contain no RNA or DNA.) Viruses vary from simple to very comple x structures. Most viruses are about one hundred times smaller than an average bacterium. The origins of viruses in the evolutionary history of life are unclear: some may have evolved from plasmids — pieces of DNA that can move between cells—while others may have evolved from bacteria. Viruses spread in many ways; plant viruses are often transmitted from plant to plant by insects that feed on sap, such as aphids, while animal viruses can be carried by blood -sucking insects. These disease -bearing organisms are known as vectors. Influenza viruses are spread by coughing and sneezing. HIV is one of several viruses transmitted through sexual contact and by exposure to infected blood. Viruses can infect only a limited range of host cells called the “host range”. This can be broad as when a virus is capable of infecting many species or narrow. 2 5. What can we infer from the first paragraph in this selection? a. A virus is the same as bacterium b. A person with excellent vision can see a virus with the naked eye c. A virus cannot be seen with the naked eye d. Not all viruses are dangerous 6. What types of organisms do viruses infect? a. Only plants and humans b. Only animals and humans c. Only disease -prone humans d. All types of organisms 7. How many parts do prions and viroids consist of? a. Two b. Three c. Either less than two or more than three d. Less than two 8. What is one common virus spread by coughing and sneezing? a. AIDS b. Influenza c. Herpes d. Tuberculosis Questions 9 – 11 refer to the following passage. Passage 3 – Clouds The first stage of a thunderstorm is the cumulus stage, or developing stage. In this stage, masses of moisture are lifted upwards into the atmosphere. The trigger for this lift can be insulation heating the ground producing thermals, areas where two winds converge, forcing air upwards, or where winds blow over terrain of increasing elevation. Moisture in the air rapidly cools into liquid drops of water, which appears as cumulus clouds. As the water vapor condenses into liquid, latent heat is released which warms the air, causing it to become less dense than the surrounding dry air. The warm air rises in an updraft through the process of convection (hence the term convective precipitation). This creates a low -pressure zone beneath the forming thunderstorm. In a typical thunderstorm, approximately 5×108 kg of water vapor is lifted, and the amount of energy released when this condenses is about equal to the energy used by a city of 100,000 in a month. 3 9. The cumulus stage of a thunderstorm is the a. The last stage of the storm b. The middle stage of the storm formation c. The beginning of the thunderstorm d. The period after the thunderstorm has ended 10. One of the ways the air is warmed is a. Air moving downwards, which will creates a high-pressure zone b. Air cooling and becoming less dense, causing it to rise c. Moisture moving downward toward the earth d. Heat created by water vapor condensing into liquid 11. Identify the correct sequence of events a. Warm air rises, water droplets condense, creating more heat, and the air rises further. b. Warm air rises and cools, water droplets condense, causing low pressure. c. Warm air rises and collects water vapor, the water vapor condenses as the air rises, which creates heat, and causes the air to rise further. d. None of the above. Questions 12 – 14 refer to the following passage. Passage 4 – US Weather Service The United States National Weather Service classifies thunderstorms as severe when they reach a predetermined level. Usually, this means the storm is strong enough to inflict wind or hail damage. In most of the United States, a storm is considered severe if winds reach over 50 knots (58 mph or 93 km/h), hail is ¾ inch (2 cm) diameter or larger, or if meteorologists report funnel clouds or tornadoes. In the Central Region of the United States National Weather Service, the hail threshold for a severe thunderstorm is 1 inch (2.5 cm) in diameter. Though a funnel cloud or tornado indicates the presence of a severe thunderstorm, the various meteorological agencies would issue a tornado warning rather than a severe thunderstorm warning in this case. Meteorologists in Canada define a severe thunderstorm as either having tornadoes, wind gusts of 90 km/h or greater, hail 2 centimeters in diameter or greater, rainfall more than 50 millimeters in 1 hour, or 75 millimeters in 3 hours. Severe thunderstorms can develop from any type of thunderstorm. 3 12. What is the purpose of this passage? a. Explaining when a thunderstorm turns into a tornado b. Explaining who issues storm warnings, and when these warnings should be issued c. Explaining when meteorologists consider a thunderstorm severe d. None of the above 13. It is possible to infer from this passage that a. Different areas and countries have different criteria for determining a severe storm b. Thunderstorms can include lightning and tornadoes, as well as violent winds and large hail c. If someone spots both a thunderstorm and a tornado, meteorological agencies will immediately issue a severe storm warning d. Canada has a much different alert system for severe storms, with criteria that are far less 14. What would the Central Region of the United States National Weather Service do if hail was 2.7 cm in diameter? a. Not issue a severe thunderstorm warning. b. Issue a tornado warning. c. Issue a severe thunderstorm warning. d. Sleet must also accompany the hail before the Weather Service will issue a storm warning. Questions 15 – 18 refer to the following passage. Passage 5 – Clouds A cloud is a visible mass of droplets or frozen crystals floating in the atmosphere above the surface of the Earth or other planetary bodies. Another type of cloud is a mass of material in space, attracted by gravity, called interstellar clouds and nebulae . The branch of meteorology which studies clouds is called nephrology. When we are speaking of Earth clouds, water vapor is usually the condensing substance, which forms small droplets or ice crystal. These crystals are typically 0.01 mm in diameter. Dense , deep clouds reflect most light, so they appear white, at least from the top. Cloud droplets scatter light very efficiently, so the further into a cloud light travels, the weaker it gets. This accounts for the gray or dark appearance at the base of large clouds. Thin clouds may appear to have acquired the color of their environment or background. 4 15. What are clouds made of? a. Water droplets. b. Ice crystals. c. Ice crystals and water droplets. d. Clouds on Earth are made of ice crystals and water droplets. 16. The main idea of this passage is a. Condensation occurs in clouds, having an intense effect on the weather on the surface of the earth. b. Atmospheric gases are responsible for the gray color of clouds just before a severe storm happens. c. A cloud is a visible mass of droplets or frozen crystals floating in the atmosphere above the surface of the Earth or other planetary body. d. Clouds reflect light in varying amounts and degrees, depending on the size and concentration of the water droplets. 17. The branch of meteorology that studies clouds is called a. Convection b. Thermal meteorology c. Nephology d. Nephelometry 18. Why are clouds white on top and grey on the bottom? a. Because water droplets inside the cloud do not reflect light, it appears white, and the further into the cloud the light travels, the less light is reflected making the bottom appear dark. b. Because water droplets outside the cloud reflect light, it appears dark, and the further into the cloud the light travels, the more light is reflected making the bottom appear white. c. Because water droplets inside the cloud reflects light, making it appear white, and the further into the cloud the light travels, the more light is reflected making the bottom appear dark. d. None of the above. Questions 19 - 22 refer to the following recipe. Chocolate Chip Cookies 3/4 cup sugar 3/4 cup packed brown sugar 1 cup butter, softened 2 large eggs, beaten 1 teaspoon vanilla extract 2 1/4 cups all-purpose flour 1 teaspoon baking soda 3/4 teaspoon salt 2 cups semisweet chocolate chips If desired, 1 cup chopped pecans, or chopped walnuts. Preheat oven to 375 degrees. Mix sugar, brown sugar, butter, vanilla and eggs in a large bowl. Stir in flour, baking soda, and salt. The dough will be very stiff. Stir in chocolate chips by hand with a sturdy wooden spoon. Add the pecans, or other nuts, if desired. Stir until the chocolate chips and nuts are evenly dispersed. Drop dough by rounded tablespoonfuls 2 inches apart onto a cookie sheet. Bake 8 to 10 minutes or until light brown. Cookies may look underdone, but they will finish cooking after you take them out of the oven. 19. What is the correct order for adding these ingredients? a. Brown sugar, baking soda, chocolate chips b. Baking soda, brown sugar, chocolate chips c. Chocolate chips, baking soda, brown sugar d. Baking soda, chocolate chips, brown sugar 20. What does sturdy mean? a. Long b. Strong c. Short d. Wide 21. What does disperse mean? a. Scatter b. To form a ball c. To stir d. To beat 22. When can you stop stirring the nuts? a. When the cookies are cooked. b. When the nuts are evenly distributed. c. As soon as the nuts are added. d. After the chocolate chips are added. Questions 23 – 25 refer to the following passage. Passage 7 – Caterpillars Butterfly larvae, or caterpillars, eat enormous quantities of leaves and spend practically all their time in search of food. Although most caterpillars are herbivorous, a few species eat other insects. Some larvae form mutual associations with ants. They communicate with ants using vibrations transmitted through the soil, as well as with chemical signals. The ants provide some degree of protection to the larvae and they in turn gather honeydew secretions. 5 23. What do most larvae spend their time looking for? a. Leaves b. Insects c. Leaves and insects d. Honeydew secretions 24. What benefit do larvae get from association with ants? a. They do not receive any benefit b. Ants give them protection c. Ants give them food d. Ants give them honeydew secretions 25. Do ants or larvae benefit most from association? a. Ants benefit most. b. Larvae benefit most. c. Both benefit the same. d. Neither benefits. Questions 26 – 30 refer to the following passage. Passage 8 – Navy Seals The United States Navy’s Sea, Air and Land Teams, commonly known as Navy SEALs, are the U.S. Navy’s principal special operations force, and a part of the Naval Special Warfare Command (NSWC) as well as the maritime component of the United States Special Operations Command (USSOCOM). The unit’s acronym (“SEAL”) comes from their capacity to operate at sea, in the air, and on land – but it is their ability to work underwater that separates SEALs from most other military units in the world. Navy SEALs are trained and have been deployed in a wide variety of missions, including direct action and special reconnaissance operations, unconventional warfare, foreign internal defence, hostage rescue, counter -terrorism and other missions. All SEALs are members of either the United States Navy or the United States Coast Guard. In the early morning of May 2, 2011 local time, a team of 40 CIA -led Navy SEALs completed an operation to kill Osama bin Laden in Abbottabad, Pakistan about 35 miles (56 km) from Islamabad, the country’s capital. The Navy SEALs were part of the Naval Special Warfare Development Group, previously called “Team 6”. President Barack Obama later confirmed the death of bin Laden. The unprecedented media coverage raised the public profile of the SEAL community, particularly the counter -terrorism specialists commonly known as SEAL Team 6. 6 26. Are Navy SEALs part of USSOCOM? a. Yes b. No c. Only for special operations d. No, they are part of the US Navy 27. What separates Navy SEALs from other military units? a. Belonging to NSWC b. Direct action and special reconnaissance operations c. Working underwater d. Working for other military units in the world 28. What other military organizations do SEALs belong to? a. The US Navy b. The Coast Guard c. The US Army d. The Navy and the Coast Guard 29. What other organization participated in the Bin Laden raid? a. The CIA b. The US Military c. Counter -terrorism specialists d. None of the above 30. What is the new name for Team 6? a. They were always called Team 6 b. The counter -terrorism specialists c. The Naval Special Warfare Development Group d. None of the above Questions 31 – 34 refer to the following passage. Passage 9 - Gardening Gardening for food extends far into prehistory. Ornamental gardens were known in ancient times, a famous example being the Hanging Gardens of Babylon, while ancient Rome had dozens of gardens. The earliest forms of gardens emerged from the people’s need to grow herbs and vegetables. It was only later that rich individuals created gardens for purely decorative purposes. In ancient Egypt, rich people created ornamental gardens to relax in the shade of the trees. Egyptians believed that gods liked gardens. Commonly, walls surrounded ancient Egyptian gardens with trees planted in rows. The most popular tree species were date palms, sycamores, fig trees, nut trees, and willows. In addition to ornamental gardens, wealthy Egyptians kept vineyards to produce wine. The Assyrians are also known for their beautiful gardens in what we know today as Iraq. Assyrian gardens were very large, with some of them used for hunting and others as leisure gardens. Cypress and palm were the most popular trees in Assyrian gardens. 7 31. Why did wealthy people in Egypt have gardens? a. For food. b. To relax in the shade. c. For ornamentation. d. For hunting. 32. What did the Egyptians believe about gardens? a. They believed gods loved gardens. b. They believed gods hated gardens. c. The didn’t have any beliefs about gods and Gardens. d. They believed gods hated trees. 33. What kinds of trees did the Assyrians like? a. The Assyrians liked date palms, sycamores, fig trees, nut trees, and willows. b. The Assyrians liked Cypresses and palms. c. The Assyrians didn’t like trees. d. The Assyrians liked hedges and vines. 34. Which came first, gardening for vegetables or ornamental gardens? a. Ornamental gardens came before vegetable gardens. b. Vegetable gardens came before ornamental gardens. c. Vegetable and ornamental gardens appeared at the same time. d. The passage does not give enough information. Questions 35 – 38 refer to the following passage. Passage 10 - Gardens Ancient Roman gardens are known for their statues and sculptures, which were never missing from the lives of Romans. Romans designed their gardens with hedges and vines as well as a wide variety of flowers, including acanthus, cornflowers and crocus, cyclamen, hyacinth, iris and ivy, lavender, lilies, myrtle, narcissus, poppy, rosemary and violet. Flower beds were popular in the courtyards of the rich Romans. The Middle Ages was a period of decline in gardening. After the fall of Rome, gardening was only for the purpose of growing medi cinal herbs and decorating church altars. Islamic gardens were built after the model of Persian gardens, with enclosed walls and watercourses dividing the garden into four. Commonly, the center of the garden would have a pool or pavilion. Mosaics and glazed tiles used to decorate elaborate fountains are specific to Islamic gardens. 7 35. What is a characteristic feature of Roman gardens? a. Statues and Sculptures. b. Flower beds. c. Medicinal Herbs. d. Courtyard gardens. 36. When did gardening decline? a. Before the Fall of Rome. b. Gardening did not decline. c. Before the Middle Ages. d. After the Fall of Rome. 37. What kind of gardening was done during the Middle Ages? a. Gardening with hedges and vines. b. Gardening with a wide variety of flowers. c. Gardening for herbs and church alters. d. Gardening divided by watercourses. 38. What is a characteristic feature of Islamic Gardens? a. Statues and Sculptures. b. Decorative tiles and fountains. c. Herbs. d. Flower beds. Questions 39 – 42 refer to the following passage. Passage 11 - Coral Reefs Coral reefs are underwater structures made from calcium carbonate secreted by corals. Corals are colonies of tiny animals found in marine waters that contain few nutrients. Most coral reefs are built from a type of coral called stony corals or Scleractinia, which in turn consist of polyps that cluster in groups. The polyps are like tiny sea anemones, which they are closely related. But unlike sea anemones, coral polyps secrete hard carbonate exoskeletons which support and protect their bodies. Reefs grow best in warm, shallow, clear, sunny and agitated waters. They are most commonly found in shallow tropical waters, but deep water and cold water corals also exist on smaller scales in other areas. Often called “rainforests of the sea”, coral reefs form some of the most diverse ecosystems on Earth. They occupy less than one tenth of one percent of the world’s ocean surface, about half the area of France, yet they provide a home for twenty -five percent of all marine species. Paradoxically, coral reefs flourish even though they are surrounded by ocean waters that provide few nutrients. 8 39. Why are coral reefs called rainforests of the sea? a. Because they are so colorful. b. Because they are a diverse ecosystem. c. Because they look like rainforests. d. Because occupy less than one tenth of one percent of the world’s ocean surface. 40. What marine animal are corals closely related to? a. Sea Anemones. b. Polyps. c. Sea Polyps. d. Anemones and Polyps. 41. Where are coral reefs found? a. In freshwater with few nutrients. b. In marine water with a lot of nutrients. c. In marine waters with few nutrients. d. In marine water with no nutrients. 42. Where do corals reefs grow? a. Hot deep water. b. Clear, warm still water. c. Warm agitated water. d. Warm, clear, shallow and agitated water. Questions 43 – 45 refer to the following passage. Coral Reefs II Most coral reefs were formed after the last glacial period 10,000 years ago when melting ice caused the sea level to rise and flood the continental shelves. As communities established themselves on the shelves, the reefs grew upwards, pacing the rising sea levels. Reefs that rose too slowly became drowned reefs, covered by so much water there was insufficient light. Different types of coral reefs grow in the deep sea away from the continental shelves, around oceanic islands and as atolls. The vast majority of these islands are volcanic in origin. The few exceptions have tectonic origins where plate movements have lifted the deep ocean floor on the surface. 8 43. When did most coral reefs form? a. Before the last glacial period. b. After the last glacial period. c. Before the sea level rose. d. When the sea level rose. 44. What can you say about how fast coral reefs grew? a. They grew at the same rate as the rising sea levels. b. They grew faster than the rising sea levels. c. They grew slower than the rising sea levels. d. They grew before the sea levels rose. 45. What happened to the coral reefs that did grow at the proper rate? a. They died due to lack of light. b. They died due to lack of water. c. They didn’t die. d. They adapted to grow faster. Section II – Math 1. What is 1/3 of 3/4? a. 1/4 b. 1/3 c. 2/3 d. 3/4 2. What fraction of $75 is $1500? a. 1/14 b. 3/5 c. 7/10 d. 1/20 3. 3.14 + 2.73 + 23.7 = a. 28.57 b. 30.57 c. 29.56 d. 29.57 4. A woman spent 15% of her income on an item and ends up with $120. What percentage of her income is left? a. 12% b. 85% c. 75% d. 95% 5. Express 0.27 + 0.33 as a fraction. a. 3/6 b. 4/7 c. 3/5 d. 2/7 6. What is (3.13 + 7.87) X 5? a. 65 b. 50 c. 45 d. 55 7. Reduce 2/4 X 3/4 to lowest terms. a. 6/12 b. 3/8 c. 6/16 d. 3/4 8. 2/3 – 2/5 = a. 4/10 b. 1/15 c. 3/7 d. 4/15 9. 2/7 + 2/3 = a. 12/23 b. 5/10 c. 20/21 d. 6/21 10. 2/3 of 60 + 1/5 of 75 = a. 45 b. 55 c. 15 d. 50 11. 8 is what percent of 40? a. 10% b. 15% c. 20% d. 25% 12. 9 is what percent of 36? a. 10% b. 15% c. 20% d. 25% 13. Three tenths of 90 equals: a. 18 b. 45 c. 27 d. 36 14. .4% of 36 is a. 1.44 b. .144 c. 14.4 d. 144 15. The physician ordered 5 mg Coumadin; 10 mg/tablet is on hand. How many tablets will you give? a. .5 tablets b. 1 tablet c. .75 tablets d. 1.5 tablets 16. The physician ordered 20 mg Tylenol/kg of body weight; on hand is 80 mg/tablet. The child weighs 12 kg. How many tablets will you give? a. 1 tablet b. 3 tablets c. 2 tablets d. 4 tablets 17. The physician ordered 20 mg Tylenol/kg of body weight; on hand is 80 mg/tablet. The child weighs 44 lb. How many tablets will you give? a. 5 tablets b. 5.5 tablets c. 4.5 tablets d. 3 tablets 18. The physician ordered 3,000 units of heparin; 5,000 U/mL is on hand. How many milliliters will you give? a. 0.5 ml b. 0.6 ml c. 0.75 ml d. 0.8 ml 19. The physician orders 60 mg Augmentin; 80 mg/mL is on hand. How many milliliters will you give? a. 1 ml b. 0.5 ml c. 0.75 ml d. 0.95 ml 20. The physician ordered 16 mg Ibuprofen/kg of body weight; on hand is 80 mg/tablet. The child weighs 15 kg. How many tablets will you give? a. 3 tablets b. 2 tablets c. 1 tablet d. 2.5 tablets 21. The physician orders 1000 mg Benbadryl liquid; 1 g/tsp is on hand. How many teaspoons will you give? a. .75 tsp b. 1.5 tsp c. 1 tsp d. 1.25 tsp 22. The physician ordered 10 units of regular insulin and 200 U/mL is on hand. How many milliliters will you give? a. .45 ml b. .75 ml c. .25 ml d. .05 ml 23. If y = 4 and x = 3, solve yx3 a. -108 b. 108 c. 27 d. 4 24. Convert 0.007 kilograms to grams a. 7 grams b. 70 grams c. 0.07 grams d. 0.70 grams 25. Convert 16 quarts to gallons a. 1 gallons b. 8 gallons c. 4 gallons d. 4.5 gallons 26. Convert 2 teaspoons to milliliters. a. 4.3 milliliters b. 9 milliliters c. 9.86 milliliters d. 4 milliliters 27. Convert 200 meters to kilometers a. 50 kilometers b. 20 kilometers c. 12 kilometers d. 0.2 kilometers 28. Convert 72 inches to feet a. 12 feet b. 6 feet c. 4 feet d. 17 feet 29. Convert 3 yards to feet a. 18 feet b. 12 feet c. 9 feet d. 27 feet 30. Convert 45 kg. to pounds. a. 10 pounds b. 100 pounds c. 1,000 pounds d. 110 pounds 31. Convert 0.63 grams to mg. a. 630 g. b. 63 mg. c. 630 mg. d. 603 mg. 32. 5x + 3 = 7x -1. Find x a. 1/3 b. ½ c. 1 d. 2 33. 5x+2(x+7) = 14x – 7. Find x a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 34. 12t -10 = 14t + 2. Find t a. -6 b. -4 c. 4 d. 6 35. 5(z+1) = 3(z+2) + 11. Z=? a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 12 36. The price of a book went up from $20 to $25. What percent did the price increase? a. 5% b. 10% c. 20% d. 25% 37. The price of a book decreased from $25 to $20. What percent did the price decrease? a. 5% b. 10% c. 20% d. 25% 38. After taking several practice tests, Brian improved the results of his GRE test by 30%. Given that the first time he took the test Brian answered 150 questions correctly, how many questions did he answer correctly on the second test? a. 105 b. 120 c. 180 d. 195 39. In local baseball team, 4 players (or 12.5% of the team) have long hair and the rest have short hair. How many short -haired players are there on the team? a. 24 b. 28 c. 32 d. 50 40. In the time required to serve 43 customers, a server breaks 2 glasses and slips 5 times. The next day, the same server breaks 10 glasses. How many customers did she serve? a. 25 b. 43 c. 86 d. 215 41. A square lawn has an area of 62,500 square meters. What will is the cost of building fence around it at a rate of $5.5 per meter? a. $4000 b. $4500 c. $5000 d. $5500 42. Mr. Brown bought 5 cheese burgers, 3 drinks, and 4 fries for his family, and a cookie pack for his dog. If the price of all single items is the same at $1.30 and a 3.5% tax is added, what is the total cost of dinner for Mr. Brown? a. $16 b. $16.9 c. $17 d. $17.5 43. The length of a rectangle is twice of its width and its area is equal to the area of a square with 12 cm. sides. What will be the perimeter of the rectangle to the nearest whole number? a. 36 cm b. 46 cm c. 51 cm d. 56 cm 44. There are 15 yellow and 35 orange balls in a basket. How many more yellow balls must be added to make the yellow balls 65%? a. 35 b. 50 c. 65 d. 70 45. A farmer wants to plant 65,536 trees in such a way that number of rows must be equal to the number of plants in a row. How many trees should he plant in a row? a. 1684 b. 1268 c. 668 d. 256 46. A distributor purchased 550 kilograms of potatoes for $165. He distributed these at a rate of $6.4 per 20 kilograms to 15 shops, $3.4 per 10 kilograms to 12 shops and the remainder at $1.8. If his distribution cost is $10, what will be his profit? a. $10.4 b. $24.60 c. $14.9 d. $23.4 47. A farmer wants to plant trees around the outside boundaries of his rectangular field of dimensions 650 meters × 780 meters. Each tree requires 5 meters of free space all around it from the stem. How many trees can he plant? a. 572 b. 568 c. 286 d. 282 48. A farmer wants to plant trees at the outside boundaries of his rectangular field of dimensions 650 meters × 780 meters. Each tree requires 5 meter of free space all around it from the stem. How much free area will be left? a. 478,800 m2 b. 492,800 m2 c. 507,625 m2 d. 518,256 m2 49. How much pay does Mr. Johnson receive if he gives half of his pay to his family, $250 to his landlord, and has exactly 3/7 of his pay left over? a. $3600 b. $3500 c. $2800 d. $1750 50. A boy has 4 red, 5 green and 2 yellow balls. He chooses two balls randomly. What is the probability that one is red and other is green? a. 2/11 b. 19/22 c. 20/121 d. 9/11 Section III – Part 1 - English 1. Choose the sentence with the correct grammar. a. Don would never have thought of that book, but you could have reminded him. b. Don would never of thought of that book, but you could have reminded him. c. Don would never have thought of that book, but you could of have reminded him. d. Don would never of thought of that book, but you could of reminded him. 2. Choose the sentence with the correct grammar. a. The mother would not of punished her daughter if she could have avoided it. b. The mother would not have punished her daughter if she could of avoided it.