(Test Bank) ALL DAT BOOTCAMP TESTS/ #1 Study Tool to Ace the DAT BIOL BOOTCAMP_ ALL ANSWERED.

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Test Bank for ALL DAT BOOTCAMP TESTS/ #1 Study Tool to Ace the DAT BIOL BOOTCAMP_ ALL ANSWERED., The downloadable file consists of 155 pages, and the total size of the file is 1.07 MB. Purchase now only for highly discounted price.

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Bootcamp.com - Cellular Energy Test_ Answered all correct (updated 2022) _____ processes break down large macromolecules into smaller pieces, and usually r elease energy in the form of ATP ✅- Catabolic processes break down large macromolecules into smaller pieces, and usually release energy in the form of ATP (think catabolic = cannibalism) _____ processes extract energy from ATP and use it to build larger, more complex macromolecules ✅- anabolic _____ is a unique type of potential energy, where the chemical bonds serve as a store of internal energy (U) and have the potential to be used to do work ✅- chemical energy (potential energy has to do with an obje ct's position) what is the most common form of "non -useful" energy release? ✅- heat _____ measures a system's useful, work performing energy ✅- Gibbs free energy (G) _____ describes a system's energy as it progresses from an initial to final state ✅- free energy change (ΔG) _____ is the energy associated with molecular bond energies ✅- enthalpy (H) change in enthalpy (ΔH) is the _____ between the initial and final states of a reaction ✅- bond energy difference a negative ΔH means that heat is _____, w hile a positive ΔH implies that heat is _____ ✅- released; absorbed catabolic reactions release free energy (_____), so they are an example of an _____ reaction ✅- -ΔG; exergonic reactants (initial position) contain more internal energy than the products (final state) in _____ reactions ✅- exergonic EXergonic reactions mean that free energy is _____ the system ✅- EXiting exergonic reactions are _____ ✅- spontaneous anabolic reactions absorb free energy (_____), so they are an example of an _____ reaction ✅- +ΔG; endergonic reactants (initial state) contain less internal energy than the products (final condition) in _____ reactions ✅- endergonic endergonic reactions are _____ reactions ✅- non-spontaneous if ∆G is _____, the reaction can occur spontaneously ✅- negative if ∆G is _____, the reaction is non -spontaneous ✅- positive a system with a higher Gibbs free energy is considered _____ stable ✅- less a system wi th a lower Gibbs free energy is considered _____ stable ✅- more ATP is an _____ nucleoside triphosphate ✅- RNA write the overall chemical formula for aerobic cellular respiration: ✅- C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O ₂ → 6CO ₂ + 6H ₂O ATP has 3 phosphates covalently linked to a _____ sugar, which also connects to an _____ nitrogenous base ✅- ribose; adenine _____ are the bonds found between phosphate groups ✅- phosphoanhydride bonds ATP molecules are _____ because the three phosphate groups are all negatively charged and repe l each other ✅- unstable _____ is the cellular energy currency ✅- ATP ATP → ADP +Pi is a _____ reaction ✅- hydrolysis ATP hydrolysis reactions release free energy, making them _____ and _____ ✅- spontaneous; exergonic ADP + Pi → ATP is a _____ reaction ✅- condensation condensation reactions absorb free energy, making them _____ and _______ ✅- non-spontaneous; endergonic ATP provides energy for all cells by transferring _____ from ATP to another molecule ✅- phosphate (reaction coupling) _____ links unfavorable reactions with favorable ones, as long as the net free energy change (ΔG) for the two reactions is negative (e xergonic and spontaneous) ✅- reaction coupling _____ make many ATP molecules through cellular respiration ✅- mitochondria where are mitochondria found in a eukaryotic cell? ✅- floating in the cytosol (as a component of the cytoplasm) how many membranes do mitochondria have? ✅- 2 the inner mitochondrial membrane has many indentations called _____ that increase the surface area ✅- cristae the acidic region between the outer and inner mitochondrial membranes is the _____ ✅- intermembrane space the inter membrane space between the outer and inner mitochondrial membranes is the_____ region ✅- acidic the area deep to the inner mitochondrial membrane is the _____ ✅- mitochondrial matrix Human muscle cells (myocytes) have a high energy requirement, so there are many _____ in them ✅- mitochondria Red blood cells (erythrocytes) function to carry as much oxygen as possible, therefore, they tend to not contain any _____ ✅- mitochondria the mitochondrial matrix contains its own circular _____ and _____ ✅- DNA; ribosomes the _____ says that the aerobic bacteria became mitochondria, while the photosynthetic bacteria became chloroplasts ✅- endosymbiotic theory the endosymbiotic theory says that the aerobic bacteria became _____, while the photosynthetic bacteria became _____ ✅- mitochondria; chloroplasts aerobic cellular respiration is a sizable _____ pathwa y that requires _____ ✅- catabolic; oxygen what are the 4 components of aerobic cellular respiration? ✅- glycolysis; pyruvate manipulations; the Krebs cycle; oxidative phosphorylation the 4 pathways of aerobic cellular respiration work to break _____ int o carbon dioxide and water, with the generation of _____ ✅- glucose; ATP the 4 pathways of aerobic cellular respiration work to break glucose into _____ and _____, with the generation of ATP ✅- carbon dioxide; water is aerobic cellular respiration overal l endergonic or exergonic? ✅- exergonic is aerobic cellular respiration overall oxidative or reductive? ✅- oxidative _____ converts a six -carbon glucose molecule into 2 three -carbon compounds called pyruvate ✅- glycolysis glycolysis converts a six -carbo n glucose molecule into _____ three -carbon compounds called _____ ✅- 2; pyruvate glycolysis does not depend on _____, which is why it can participate in fermentation as well ✅- oxygen In what location of the cell does glycolysis occur? ✅- cytosol NAD+/NADH is a _____ (organic cofactor) ✅- coenzyme glycolysis extracts high energy e - as glucose is broken down, using them to _____ NAD+ into NADH, which then may travel to the _____ for further ATP creation ✅- reduce; electron transport chain (ETC) glycolysis has 2 main phases: an _____ phase, and an _____ phase ✅- energy investment; energy payoff during glycolysis, hexokinase and the free energy released from 1 ATP hydrolysis to "trap" glucose in the cell as _____ ✅- glucose -6-phosphate during glycolysis, isomerase is used to turn glucose -6-phosphate into _________ ✅- fructose - 6-phosph ate during glycolysis _____ (enzyme) and the free energy released from _____ is used to make fructose -1,6-bisphosphate ✅- phosphofructokinase; 1 ATP hydrolysis what molecule breaks down into 2 G3P molecules? ✅- fructose -1,6,bisphosphate _________ is an essential regulatory enzyme of glycolysis ✅- phosphofructokinase (PFK) during the energy payoff phase of glycolysis G3P is oxidized and ____ is reduced ✅- NAD+ (is reduced to NADH) (makes 2 NADH - 1 for each step 6 that is occurring) _____ uses ADP as a direct substrate for its phosphorylation into ATP ✅- substrate -level phosphorylation substrate -level phosphorylation occurs directly in the _____ during the energy payoff phase of glycolysis ✅- cytosol a _____ is an enzyme which phosphorylates a molecul e, and it is responsible for the ADP phosphorylations of glycolysis ✅- kinase the energy payoff phase produces _____ ATP, _____ NADH and _____ pyruvate ✅- 4; 2; 2 list the net products of glycolysis from 1 glucose ✅- 2 ATP, 2 NADH, 2 pyruvate if glycolysis makes 4 ATP, 2 NADH, and 2 pyruvates, why does glycolysis only produce a net of 2 ATP? ✅- need to account for the 2 ATP used during the energy investment phase list what molecules go into glycolysis initially: ✅- 1 glucose, 2 ATP which group of 3 reactions link glycolysis to the rest of cellular respiration? ✅- the pyruvate manipulation reactions where do the pyruvate manipulation reactions occur? ✅- in the mit ochondrial matrix pyruvate manipulations occur in the _____ for prokaryotes because they do not have membrane -bound organelles ✅- cytosol list the 3 separate reactions of the pyruvate manipulations: ✅- 1. decarboxylation; 2. oxidation; 3. add CoA what e nzyme catalyzes the pyruvate manipulation reactions? ✅- the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex (PDC) the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex (PDC) is composed of _____ enzymes, with 1 for each pyruvate manipulation ✅- 3 during pyruvate decarboxylation, pyruvate r eleases a carbon atom as _____ ✅- carbon dioxide during pyruvate oxidation, the decarboxylation product is converted to a two -carbon _____ ✅- acetyl group pyruvate oxidation is accompanied by the reduction of _____ to _____ ✅- NAD+ to NADH pyruvate oxid ation indirectly depends on _____ ✅- oxygen (regenerates NAD+ in the ETC) after the decarboxylation and oxidation steps of the pyruvate manipulations, the remaining acetyl group will bind to _________ and this results in the formation of __________ ✅- Coenzyme A (CoA), acetyl -CoA list the net products of pyruvate manipulations from one glucose ✅- 2 CO ₂, 2 NADH, 2 acetyl -CoA where does the Krebs cycle take place in eukaryotes? ✅- mitochondrial matrix in prokaryotes, the Krebs cycle takes place in the _____ ✅- cytosol the Krebs cycle has _____ intermediates and a total of _____ steps. ✅- 7; 8 the acetyl -CoA from the pyruvate manipulations merges with _____ to form citrate. ✅- oxaloacetate the acetyl -CoA from the pyruvate manipulations merges with oxaloacetate to form _____ ✅- citrate _____ molecules are _____ by the Krebs cyc le for every 1 glucose ✅- 2 acetyl -CoA; oxidized _____ cycles of the Krebs cycle occur per glucose ✅- 2 what is the net production of 1 Krebs cycle ✅- 2 CO2, 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, and 1 GTP (ATP) what is the net production of 2 Krebs cycles (from 1 glucose m olecule)? ✅- 4 CO2, 6 NADH, 2 FADH2, and 2 GTP (ATP) what is the waste product of the Krebs cycle? ✅- CO₂ _____ encompasses two linked components - the ETC and chemiosmosis ✅- oxidative phosphorylation oxidative phosphorylation encompasses 2 linked comp onents - the _____ and _____ ✅- ETC; chemiosmosis _____ is the mechanism of ATP generation that occurs when energy is stored in the form of a H+ concentration gradient across a membrane ✅- chemiosmosis the ETC is in the _____ of eukaryotes ✅- mitochondrial inner membrane/cristae the ETC is in the _____ of prokaryotes ✅- cell membrane e- release energy through the ETC, which goes toward _____ ✅- H+ pumping the ETC couples the _____ flow of e - with the _____ pumping of H+ across the inner mitochondrial membrane (eukaryotes) ✅- exergonic, endergonic whic h ETC proteins act as H+ pumps? ✅- complex -I, III, and IV H+ pumping forms an _____ across the inner membrane (eukaryotes) ✅- electrochemical gradient the _____ of the mitochondrion is acidic due to the electrochemical gradient from H+ pumping ✅- interme mbrane space describe the physical properties of coenzyme Q (CoQ)/ubiquinone ✅- a hydrophobic carrier that is dissolved in the mitochondrial inner -membrane _____ passes e - from complex -I and II to complex III in the ETC ✅- coenzyme Q (CoQ)/ubiquinone describe the physical properties of cytochrome c ✅- a hydrophilic protein carrier in the mitochondrial intermembrane space _____ functions to transport e - from complex -III to complex -IV of the ETC ✅- cytochrome c NADH pumps _____ across the inner -membrane, and produces _____ than FADH2 ✅- more H+; more energy (ATP) when NADH reduces complex -I, we can expect the pumping of _____ H+ into the intermembrane space via complex -I, III, and IV ✅- 10 FADH2 reduces complex -II, so only about _____ H+ pumped from the matrix to the intermembrane space via complex -III and IV ✅- 6 NADH produces _____ ATP and FADH2 produces _____ ATP ✅- 3, 2 NADH enters the ETC at _____, while FADH2 enters the ETC at _____ ✅- complex -I; complex II NADH becomes oxidized as it reduces _____ ✅- complex -I _____ becomes oxidized as it reduces complex -II ✅- FADH2 e- travel from _____ to oxygen, producing _____ in the matrix ✅- complex -IV; water the final e - acceptor of the ETC is _____ ✅- oxygen in oxidative phosphorylation, the energy for ATP synthesis comes from the _____ in the ETC establishing a H+ gradient that supplies energy to _____ ✅- e-; ATP synthase H+ travel "down" their electrochemical gradient through _____ ✅- ATP synthase ATP synthase relies upon the _____ of chemiosmosis ✅- H+ motive force the _____ causes ATP synthase to spin to make ATP ✅- H+ motive force ATP synthase spins to phosphorylate ADP in the _____ of eukaryotes; _____ of prokaryotes ✅- mitochondr ial matrix; cytosol _____ uses an electrical and pH gradient to make ATP, as H+ shuttles back into the matrix ✅- ATP synthase ATP synthase is in the _____ of eukaryotes; _____ for prokaryotes ✅- inner mitochondrial membrane; cell membrane _____ H+ must travel through ATP synthase for 1 ATP molecule to be synthesized ✅- 4 aerobic respiration is hugely _____ ✅- exergonic anaerobic respiration is similar to aerobic respiration, but it uses different _____ ✅- e- acceptors (still has glycolysis --> substrate level phosphoryllation -->pyruvate manipulations) anaerobic respiration usually occurs in the _____ because it occurs mostly in _____ ✅- cytosol; prokaryotes without O₂ there would be no replenishing of _____ for glycolysis, therefore, _____ occurs ✅- NAD ⁺; fermentation alcohol fermentation can occur in _____, _____, and _____ ✅- plants, fungi, bacteria in the first st ep of alcohol fermentation, pyruvate produces _____ and _____ ✅- acetaldehyde, CO ₂ in the second step of alcohol fermentation, acetaldehyde produces _____ and _____ ✅- ethanol, NAD ⁺ in alcohol fermentation, _____ is the final e - acceptor ✅- acetaldehyde _____ occurs in human muscle cells when oxygen is not available ✅- lactic acid fermentation during lactic acid fermentation, pyruvate produces _____ and _____ ✅- lactate, NAD ⁺ once an excess amount of ATP is available, lactate is transported back to the liver to be converted back to glucose via the _____ ✅- Cori cycle what is the main purpose of fermentation? ✅- to regenerate NAD+ so 2 ATP can continue to be made through glycolysis _____ and _____ are anaerobic processes ✅- glycolysis, fermentation _____ need oxygen and only respire aerobically ✅- obligate aerobes _____ only use anaerobic respiration because oxygen is poisonous ✅- obligate anaerobes _____ can respire aerobically, anaerobically, or ferment ✅- facultative anaerobes _____ are similar to obligate aerobes, but too much oxygen will kill them ✅- microaerophiles _____ organisms are similar to obligate anaerobes but can live with oxygen ✅- aerotolerant fuel sources from highest to lowest priority: _____ > _____ > _____ ✅- carbohydrates, f ats, proteins disaccharides are hydrolyzed into _____, most of which can be converted to glucose or glycolytic intermediates ✅- monosaccharides glucose is not only broken down, but also can be produced via _____ ✅- gluconeogenesis gluconeogenesis occurs in the _____ and _____ ✅- liver, kidneys in the first step of gluconeogenesis, pyruvate carboxylase turns pyruvate into _____ ✅- oxaloacetate pyruvate carboxylase is activated by high levels of _____ ✅- acetyl -CoA glucose is stored in the body as a pol ymer called _____ in primarily the liver (2/3) and muscles (1/3) ✅- glycogen glucose is stored in the body as a polymer called glycogen in primarily the _____ (2/3) and _____ (1/3). ✅- liver, muscles all cells are capable of producing and storing glycoge n but only _____ cells and _____ cells have large amounts ✅- liver, muscle glycogen is broken down by _____ to enter glycolysis ✅- glycogenolysis _____ store more energy than carbohydrates per carbon as their carbons are in a more reduced state. ✅- fats _____ in the lumen of the small intestine (the tube itself) are broken down via lipases into monoglycerides and fatty acids ✅- triglycerides fats are _____ cals/g, whereas carbohydrates and protein are _____ cals/g ✅- 9, 4 _____ are digestive enzymes that break down fats into fatty acids and glycerol or other alcohols ✅- lipases digesting a triglyceride with a lipase is called _____ ✅- lipolysis fats are absorbed at the _____ of the small intestine ✅- enterocyte fats travel from enterocytes to adipocytes via _____ and _____ ✅- chylomicrons; lacteals large lipoproteins that move lipids from the small intestine to adipose tissues after absorption ✅- chylomicrons low density lipoproteins (LDLs) have a low density of _____ and a high _____ density; unhealthy ✅- proteins, fat high density lipoproteins (HDLs) have a high _____ density and a low _____ density; healthy ✅- proteins, fat lipases in ____ _ tissue are hormone sensitive (e.g. to glucagon) ✅- adipose between meals, most lipids of plasma are in the form of _____ ✅- lipoproteins _____ enters glycolysis or gluconeogenesis at the liver ✅- glycerol glycerol is converted into _____, and then enters glycolysis ✅- PGAL _____ is an alternative name for glyceraldehyde 3 -phosphate (G3P) ✅- PGAL fatty acids combine with _____ in the blood which carries them ✅- albumin fatty acids are broken down for ener gy via _____ ✅- beta -oxidation _____ undergo beta -oxidation in the mitochondrial matrix ✅- free fatty acids free fatty acids undergo _____ in the mitochondrial matrix ✅- beta -oxidation free fatty acids undergo beta -oxidation in the _____ ✅- mitochondria l matrix before the fatty acid enters beta -oxidation, it must be activated: _____ ATP molecules are spent activating the entire chain ✅- 2 an activated fatty acid undergoing beta -oxidation is converted into _____, which enters the Krebs cycle ✅- acetyl -CoA plants and bacteria use a modified version of the Krebs cycle called the _____ cycle that produces sugar from acetyl -CoA ✅- glyoxylate the _____ is the only instance where acetyl -CoA can contribute to gluconeogenesis ✅- glyoxylate cycle every _____ c arbons from a fatty acid chain make _____ acetyl -CoA ✅- 2, 1 saturated fatty acids produce _____ NADH and _____ FADH2 for every cut into 2 pieces ✅- 1, 1 unsaturated fatty acids produce _____ less FADH2 for each double bond. ✅- 1 _____ are the least des irable source of energy ✅- proteins (used only when carbohydrates and fats are unavailable) _____ removes ammonia molecules directly from amino acids ✅- oxidative deamination most amino acids are deaminated in the _____ ✅- liver deaminated amino acids are converted to _____ or _____ or other _____ intermediates ✅- pyruvate; acetyl -CoA; Krebs cy cle insects/birds/reptiles convert ammonia to _____ and then excrete it ✅- uric acid mammals/sharks/most amphibians convert ammonia to _____ for excretion ✅- urea proteins give _____ kcal/gram and can contribute to gluconeogenesis at the _____ ✅- 4; liv er Bootcamp.com - Fundamentals of Biology Solution guide a _____ is the basic functional unit of the nervous system ✓- neuron what are the three main parts of neuron? ✓- cell body (soma); dendrites; axon what is the name for the cell body of a neuron, and what organelle does it contain? ✓- soma; nucleus _____ are processes that receive signals from previous neurons ✓- dendrites _____ are long processes that transduce signals to the next neuron ✓- axons graded potential summation occurs at the _____, which connects the soma to the axon ✓- axon hillock what will happen if a summation is more positive than the threshold potential? ✓- an action potential will fire _____ is a fatty insulation of the axon, w hich helps for faster axon conduction ✓- myelin sheath which cells produce the myelin sheath in the central nervous system? ✓- oligodendrocytes which cells produce the myelin sheath in the peripheral nervous system? ✓- schwann cells _____ are gaps betwe en myelin sheath of the axon ✓- Nodes of Ranvier what is saltatory propagation? ✓- the action potential "jumps" from one node of Ranvier to the next what is the benefit of saltatory propagation? ✓- it provides faster conduction than propagating the signa l down the entire axon what is the resting potential for a typical neuronal cell? ✓- -70 mV a cell's resting potential is maintained by _____ ✓- Na+/K+ ATPases more Na+ is _____ the neuron at the resting state ✓- outside more K+ is _____ the neuron dur ing the resting state ✓- inside the Na+/K+ ATPase (pump) exchanges _____ out of a cell for _____ into the cell, and it consumes _____ to do so ✓- 3 Na+; 2 K+; 1 ATP the Na+/K+ pump maintains a (positive/negative) charge in the neuron ✓- negative (extrac ellular environment is more positive) what happens when a neuron is stimulated by an excitatory potential? ✓- depolarization (membrane potential is made less negative) gated Na+ channels open/close when a neuron is depolarizing ✓- open Na+ flows in/out of a neuron during depolarization ✓- in what is the threshold potential of a neuron? ✓- minimum potential for an action potential (typically -55 mV) after a neuron rea ches threshold, it will experience an action potential that is always the same size - what is the *typical* charge of an action potential? ✓- +30 mV what happens at +30 mV (peak action potential)? ✓- repolarization (membrane potential becomes more negati ve) Na+ channels (open/close), while K+ channels (open/close) to initiate repolarization ✓- close; open K+ flows (in/out) of the neuron during repolarization ✓- out eventually, a neuronal cell will _____, meaning the membrane potential falls below the normal resting potential of -70 mV ✓- hyper -polarize what is the typical charge of a hyperpolarized neuronal cell? ✓- -90 mV a neuron's refractory period occurs during _____ & _____, and it extends into _____ ✓- action potential; repolarization; hyperpola rization what are the two stages of the refractory period? ✓- absolute; relative a second stimulus cannot generate another action potential during the _____ of an action potential/repolarization ✓- absolute refractory period describe Na+ and K+ channels during the absolute refractory period? ✓- gated Na+ channels are open until peak a ction potential, then they close K+ channels open at peak action potential until the end of repolarization a second stimulus can stimulate an action potential if it is strong enough during a _____ ✓- relative refractory period the relative refractory pe riod occurs after the _____ ✓- absolute refractory period (or onset of hyperpolarization) describe Na+ and K+ channels during the relative refractory period: ✓- the Na+ channels remain closed the K+ channels remain open until the resting potential is ac heived neurons are _____ during the relative refractory period ✓- hyperpolarized a _____ is the space between two neurons ✓- synapse (synaptic cleft) the _____ neuron releases neurotransmitters into the synapse ✓- presynaptic the _____ neuron receives neurotransmitters that cross the synapse ✓- postsynaptic what happens when an action potential reaches the end of the presynaptic axon? ✓- voltage -gated Ca2+ channels open, allowing Ca2+ to flow into the neuron what happens when voltage -gated Ca2+ channe ls open to allow Ca2+ influx into the presynaptic neuron? ✓- synaptic vesicles release neurotransmitters into the synapse by exocytosis postsynaptic graded potentials can be _____ or _____ depending on the neurotransmitter ✓- excitatory; inhibitory excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) occur when the neuron _____ due to _____ that open ✓- depolarizes; Na+ gates Na+ flows (into/out o f) the cell during an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) ✓- into excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) bring the neuron _____ to the threshold ✓- closer inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs) occur when the neuron _____ due to _____ & ____ _ channels that open ✓- hyperpolarizes; Cl -; K+ in which directions do Cl - and K+ flow during an inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP)? ✓- Cl- = into the cell K+ = out of the cell inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs) bring the neuron _____ from the threshold ✓- further away graded potentials vary in _____ and _____ (EPSP v. IPSP) ✓- magnitude; direction _____ occurs when all graded potentials (EPSPs and IPSPs) are added together at the _____ ✓- summation; axon hillock an _____ and ensuing ____ _ occur if the sum of EPSPs and IPSPs is higher than the threshold ✓- action potential; refractory period there will not be an action potential (or refractory periods) if the sum of EPSPs and IPSPs is _____ ✓- below threshold what are neurotransmitters? ✓- chemical messengers used during chemical neurotransmission what is the main excitatory neurotransmitter of the vertebrate central nervous system? ✓- glutamate which category of neurotransmitter does glutamate fall into? ✓- amino acid neurotransmitter gamma -aminobutyric acid (GABA) is a(n) _____ (class of neurotransmitter), and it is an inhibitory/excitatory neurotransmitter of the brain ✓- amino acid neurotransmitter; inhibitory glycine is a(n) _____ (class of neurotransmitter), and it is an inhibito ry/excitatory neurotransmitter of the spinal cord, brainstem, retina ✓- amino acid neurotransmitter; inhibitory epinephrine and norepinephrine are _____ (class of neurotransmitter) ✓- amino acid - derived epinephrine and norepinephrine are _____ postsynapt ic neurotransmitters of the _____ ✓- excitatory; SNS another name for epinephrine and norepinephrine is _____ and _____ ✓- adrenaline; noradrenaline dopamine is a(n) _____ (class of neurotransmitter), and it is an _____ neurotransmitter of the brain ✓- amino acid -derived; excitatory _____ is an amino acid -derived neurotransmitter that is responsible for reward - motivated behavior ✓- dopamine serotonin is a(n) _____ (class of neurotransmitter), and it is an inhibitory/excitatory neurotransmitter of the br ain ✓- amino acid -derived neurotransmitter; inhibitory for which bodily functions is serotonin responsible? ✓- mood, appetite, sleep, and learning serotonin increases/decreases contraction of the GI tract in response to food intake ✓- increases which ca tegory of neurotransmitter is involved in diverse roles for many brain functions? ✓- short chain amino acid neurotransmitters (neuropeptides) what is a common example of a short chain amino acid neurotransmitter? ✓- substance P _____ is a gaseous neurotr ansmitter (gasotransmitter) ✓- nitric oxide nitric oxide gasotransmitter causes relaxation of the smooth muscle in blood vessels (_____) ✓- vasodilation nitric oxide gasotransmitter is synthesized and released _____ ✓- on demand what is the excitatory neurotransmitter of a neuromuscular junction? ✓- acetylcholine acetylcholine is the presynaptic/postsynaptic neurotransmitter of the sympathetic and parasy mpathetic nervous systems ✓- presynaptic What is the postsynaptic neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system? ✓- acetylcholine _____ are non -neuronal cells that nourish, support, and protect neurons ✓- glial cells what are the two subcategor ies of glial cells? ✓- microglia; macroglia (various types) _____ are specialized macrophages that protect the CNS ✓- microglia what are the various types of macroglial cells? ✓- schwann cells; oligodendrocytes; astrocytes; satellite cells; ependymal cel ls _____ form the myelin sheath in the peripheral nervous system ✓- schwann cells _____ form the myelin sheath in the central nervous system ✓- oligodendrocytes what is the most abundant type of CNS neuroglia? hint: it is a type of macroglial cell ✓- astrocytes astrocytes provide blood to _____ neurons and help form the _____ ✓- CNS; blood brain barrier _____ are macroglia that recycle neurotransmitters and maintain ion levels ✓- astrocytes satellite cells ensheathe the _____ of central/peripheral ne rves ✓- soma; peripheral _____ are similar to astrocytes; however, they function in the peripheral nervous system ✓- satellite cells ependymal cells are macroglia that create the _____ ✓- cerebrospinal fluid what are the major components of the central nervous system (CNS)? ✓- the brain and spinal cord what are the major components of the peripheral nervous system? ✓- all the nerves t hat branch off the CNS what are the three areas of the brain seen during embryonic development? ✓- forebrain; midbrain; hindbrain what does the forebrain develop into? ✓- telencephalon and the diencephalon the telencephalon gives rise to the _____ ✓- cerebrum the _____ gives rise to the thalamus, hypothalamus, pineal gland, and retina ✓- diencephalon what does the midbrain develop into? ✓- mesencephalon the mesencephalon gives rise to the _____ ✓- midbrain what does the hindbrain develop into? ✓- metencephalon and the myelencephalon the metencephalon gives rise to the _____ & _____ ✓- pons, cerebellum the myelencephalon gives rise to the _____ ✓- medulla oblongata the _____ is the brain cortex, which has two hemispheres and is involved in higher cognitive functions ✓- cerebrum what are the four lobes of the cerebrum? ✓- frontal; temporal; occipital; parietal where is the cerebellum located? ✓- under the occipital lobe of the cerebrum what is the function of the cerebellum? ✓- coordinate and refine movement the reptilian brain includes the main structures found in a reptile's brain: the _____ and the _____ ✓- brainstem; cerebellum the _____ controls much of the body's basic functions such as, breathing, heart rate, instincts, etc. ✓- reptilian brain what is the relay center of the brain and where is it located? ✓- thalamus; between cerebrum and midbrain of t he brainstem where is the limbic system located? ✓- superior to the brainstem, and encased by the cerebrum what is the function of the limbic system? ✓- emotion; memory and learning; motivation what structures does the limbic system include? ✓- amygdala ; hippocampus; thalamus; hypothalamus the _____ lobe works with limbic system, and it is involved with higher function processes such as attention/concentration ✓- frontal (remember this because we might push our eyebrows together at the *front* of our h ead when we're *concentrating*) the _____ lobe is involved with speech, language, and hearing ✓- temporal (remember this because the temporal lobes are located near the ears) the occipital lobe is involved with _____ ✓- vision (remember this because bu mping the back of one's head could lead to a concussion --> blurry vision) the _____ is involved with spatial/visual perception, as well as touch/pain/temperature sensation and integration ✓- parietal lobe the _____ is the major receptive area for touch ✓- somatosensory cortex the _____ is involved with the initiation of motor impulses ✓- somatomotor cortex what connects the two hemispheres of the brain? ✓- the corpus callosum the _____ is involved with balance & coordination as well as fine tuning motor inputs ✓- cerebellum the _____ relays senses to higher functioning parts of the brain (vision; hearing) ✓- midbrain the _____ relays messages from the cerebellum to the cerebrum and it is involved with sleep and dreaming ✓- pons the _____ maintains vital body functions (HR/BP), breathing rate, and senses toxins ✓- medulla ob longata the _____ is a "relay center" that directs sensory impulses to other areas of the brain ✓- thalamus (limbic system) the _____ produces anti -diuretic hormone (ADH), controls the pituitary, and is involved with homeostasis ✓- hypothalamus (limbic s ystem) what is the hippocampus (limbic system) responsible for? ✓- learning/long -term memories the _____ of the limbic system is involved with emotion, motivation, and libido ✓- amygdala the spinal cord runs within the _____ to connect the brain to the body ✓- vertebral column _____ are where _____ neurons enter to innervate the spinal cord ✓- dorsal roots; sensory (afferent) _____ are where _____ neurons exit the spinal cord to innervate effector tissues ✓- ventral roots; efferent what are the membranes that protect the CNS? ✓- meninges what are the three layers of the meninges (from outer to inner)? ✓- DAP Dura mater; Arac hnoid; Pia mater what are the five main types of sensory (afferent) receptors? ✓- mechanoreceptors; nociceptors; thermoreceptors; chemoreceptors; electromagnetic (light) receptors _____ respond to a mechanical stimuli, such as touch and/or sound ✓- mecha noreceptors _____ respond to painful stimuli ✓- nociceptors thermoreceptors respond to _____ ✓- temperature -related stimuli _____ respond to chemical stimuli ✓- chemoreceptors _____ respond to light, electricity, and magnetic stimuli ✓- electromagnetic (light) receptors what are the two subgroups of the peripheral nervous system ✓- somatic and autonomic nervous systems the _____ nervous system controls the voluntary movement of the body, specifically the activity of skeletal muscles ✓- somatic the __ ___ nervous system controls in involuntary muscles/movements ✓- autonomic what are the two subdivisions of the autonomic nervous system? ✓- sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system the _____ is responsible for the fight or flight response ✓- sympathetic nervous system (SNS) what are the main effects of the fight or flight response? ✓- glucose release from the liver; HR increase; airway dilation; pupil dilation the _____ is responsible for rest and digestion ✓- parasympathetic nervous system (PNS) the _____ is the major nerv e of the PNS ✓- vagus nerve what are the main effects of rest & digestion? ✓- muscles relax; decrease HR; homeostasis; increase GI activity a _____ is a cluster of neuronal soma in the peripheral nervous system ✓- ganglion how do neurons synapse in a ga nglion? ✓- preganglionic axon terminals synapse with dendrites of postganglionic nerves _____ nerves come from the CNS to synapse with postganglionic neurons (at a ganglion) ✓- preganglionic _____ nerves are nerves that exit a ganglion ✓- postganglionic what are the lengths of pre -/postganglionic nerves in the PNS? ✓- long/short what is the distance of PNS ganglia from effector organs? ✓- close what is the length of pre -/postganglionic nerves in the SNS? ✓- short/long what is the distance of SNS gangl ia from effector organs? ✓- far which neurotransmitters are used for pre -/postganglionic nerves in the PNS? ✓- acetylcholine for both pre -/postganglionic which neurotransmitters are used for pre -/postganglionic nerves in the SNS? ✓- preganglionic = acety lcholine postganglionic = epinephrine or norepinephrine SNS preganglionic neurons can directly stimulate the adrenal _____ to release _____&_____ into the blood ✓- medulla; epinephrine & norepinephrine which hormones help generate the fight or flight response? ✓- epinephrine & norepinephrine where do sound waves enter the ear? ✓- outer ear structures the _____ transfers sound wave vibrations from the outer to middle ear ✓- tympanic membrane what is th e name for the small bones located in the middle ear? ✓- the ossicles what are the three ossicles of the middle ear? ✓- (MIS) malleus; incus; stapes the _____ is a membrane bound opening, which separates the middle ear from the inner ear ✓- oval window the oval window transfers vibrations from the _____ to the _____ ✓- stapes; cochlea the _____ is a fluid filled "snail shell" in the inner ear, and it has a basement membrane lined by hairs that transduce mechanical waves to nerve signals ✓- cochlea _____ is the process of taking a mechanical signal and converting it to a nerve signal ✓- transduction the flexible _____ provides room for the cochlear fluid to expand against it ✓- round window _____ are found in the inner ear and they tell the brain abou t orientation & balance ✓- semicircular canals what is the transparent front portion of the eye which has no blood vessels? ✓- the cornea what is the opening in the center of the iris? ✓- pupil pupil _____ influences the amount of light that can enter the eye ✓- diameter the _____ is a pigmented ring that changes shape to influence the diameter of the pupil ✓- iris what is the transparent "window" behind the pupil, which bends/focuses light ont o the retina? ✓- lens the _____ change the curvature of the lens to affect the focal distance ✓- ciliary muscles what is the innermost layer of the eye which contains photoreceptors? ✓- retina what are the two types of photoreceptors? ✓- rods and cones rods are used for _____ because they function at _____ levels of light ✓- night vision; low cones transmit _____ images because they function at _____ levels of light ✓- color and shape; high what is the region of the retina that is most densely packed with photoreceptors (mainly cones)? ✓- the fovea how do photoreceptors synapse with the optic nerve? ✓- photoreceptors --> horizontal & amacrine & bipolar cells --> ganglion cells --> optic nerve the _____ exits the back of the eye at the optic disk and carries visual info to the brain ✓- optic nerve what is the blind spot of the eye? ✓- the optic disc (where the optic nerve exits) what is the white, protective, connective tissue layer of the eye? ✓- the sclera what is the connective vascular tissue between the sclera and the retina called? ✓- the choroid what is our sense of taste called? ✓- gustation what are the five gustatory senses? ✓- salty, sour, bitter, sweet, and umami what part of the brain gives us perception of taste/flavor? ✓- gustatory cortex what is our sense of smell called? ✓- olfaction what cortex in the brain give us the perception of smell? ✓- olfactory corte x Bootcamp.com - Cells and Organelles correctly answered solution guide. what are the three main components in a cell membrane? ✓- phospholipids; cholesterol; proteins what is the structure of a phospholipid? ✓- glycerol b ackbone, two fatty acid tails, and a hydrophilic phosphate group what are the two classes of membrane proteins? ✓- integral; peripheral _____ membrane proteins are embedded in the core of the plasma membrane ✓- integral many integral proteins are _____ proteins, meaning they extend all the way through the membrane ✓- transmembrane integral/transmembrane proteins may function in cell _____, but most tend to transport _____ molecules across the cell membrane ✓- signaling; large, polar (hydrophilic) _____ membrane proteins do not extend through the entire bilayer ✓- peripheral what are the three types of peripheral proteins? ✓- receptors; adhesion proteins; recognition proteins recognition proteins are also known as _____ ✓- glycoproteins what is a common example of a recognition peripheral protein? ✓- major - histocompatibility complexes (MHC molecules) to transmit a signal inside a cell, integral receptor proteins trigger _______ ✓- secondary messengers ligands that bind to a receptor protein and activate its response are called _______ ✓- agonists ligands that bind to a receptor and prevent it from activating are called _______ ✓- antagonists what are the three main factors that affect membrane fluidity? ✓- temperature; cholesterol; the degree o f phospholipid tail unsaturation saturated fatty acids have the _______ possible number of hydrogens at each carbon, which gives them a _______ shape ✓- highest; straight