(Test Bank) USMLE Step I Comprehensive review_ 2022; Distinction Level Assignment Has everything.

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Test Bank for USMLE Step I Comprehensive review_ 2022; Distinction Level Assignment Has everything., The downloadable file consists of 158 pages, and the total size of the file is 1.02 MB. Purchase now only for highly discounted price.

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USMLE Step I Comprehensive review Test Mode Bank 1. Thyroid gland - What gland is found in the muscular triangle of the neck? 2. Afferent pupillary defect (CN II lesion); in an efferent pupillary defect (CN III), B/L constrict when light is shined in the unaffected eye and consentual pupil constriction occurs when light is shined in the affected eye. - Is an afferent or efferent pup illary defect described as B/L pupillary constriction when light is shined in the unaffected eye and B/L paradoxical dilation when light is shined in the affected eye? 3. Cauda equina - What is the name of the spinal cord passing within the subarachnoid space and forming the spinal nerves that exit the lumbar and sacral foramina? 4. Thyroarytenoid muscles - Name the laryngeal muscle described by the following: • Pulls the arytenoids cartilages closer to the thyroid, relaxing the vocal ligaments and thereby decreasing the pitch 5. Cricothyroid muscles - Name the laryngeal muscle described by the following: • Tenses the vocal ligaments, increasing the distance between the cartilages, thereby increasing the pitch 6. Lateral cricoarytenoid muscles - Name the laryngeal m uscle described by the following: • Adducts the vocal ligaments, closes the air passageway during swallowing, and allows phonation 7. Posterior cricoarytenoid muscles - Name the laryngeal muscle described by the following: • Only muscle to abduct the vocal c ords 8. Opposite the second upper molar tooth - Where does the parotid (Stensen's) duct enter the oral cavity? 9. Third aortic arch MS CARD is my mnemonic for the aortic arch derivatives - From what aortic arch are the following structures derived? • Common an d internal carotid arteries 10. Fifth MS CARD is my mnemonic for the aortic arch derivatives - From what aortic arch are the following structures derived? • Degenerates 11. Second MS CARD is my mnemonic for the aortic arch derivatives - From what aortic arch are the following structures derived? • Stapes artery 12. First MS CARD is my mnemonic for the aortic arch derivatives - From what aortic arch are the following structures derived? • Maxillary artery 13. Fourth MS CARD is my mnemonic for the aortic arch derivatives - From what aortic arch are the following structures derived? • Arch of the aorta and right subclavian artery 14. Sixth MS CARD is my mnemonic for the aortic arch derivatives - From what aortic arch are the following structures derived? • Right and left pulm onary arteries and the ductus arteriosus 15. External abdominal oblique - What abdominal muscle contributes to the anterior layer of the rectus sheath, forms the inguinal ligament, and in men gives rise to the external spermatic fascia of the spermatic cord? 16. Medial compartment of the thigh, obturator nerve - Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on its movements. • Adduct the thigh and flex the hip 17. Posterior compartment of the leg, tibial nerve - Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on its movements. • Plantar flex the foot, flex the toes, and invert the foot 18. Anterior compartment of the leg, deep peroneal nerve - Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on its movements. • Dorsiflex the foot, extend the toes, and invert the foot 19. Anterior compartment of the thigh, femoral nerve - Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on its m ovements. • Flex the hip and extend the knee 20. Posterior compartment of the thigh, tibial nerve - Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on its movements. • Extend the hip and flex the knee 21. Lateral compartment of the leg, superfici al peroneal nerve - Name the compartment of the lower extremity and the nerve based on its movements. • Plantar flex the foot and evert the foot 22. STARS 1. Upper Subscapularis 2. Thoracodorsal 3. Axillary 4. Radial 5. Lower Subscapularis - What are the five branches of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus? 23. Right brachiocephalic artery - Name the correct artery. • The right recurrent laryngeal nerve passes around it. 24. Arch of the aorta - Name the correct artery. • The left recurrent laryngeal nerve pass es around it. 25. The splenic vein - The inferior mesenteric artery drains into it. 26. Functionally they are part of the left lobe of the liver because they receive their blood supply from the left hepatic artery. Anatomically they are considered part of the ri ght lobe of the liver. - Are the quadrate and caudate lobes of the liver functionally part of the left or right lobe? 27. Pubis, ilium, and ischium - What bones make up the acetabulum? 28. LARP: Left goes Anterior and Right goes Posterior (because of the rotatio n of the gut; remember your embryology!) - What is the anatomic positioning of the right and left gastric nerve plexus of the esophagus as they pass through the diaphragm? 29. Middle meningeal artery - What vessel is lacerated in an epidural hematoma? 30. TRUE - True or false? Below the arcuate line, all the aponeurotic fibers run anterior to the rectus abdominis. 31. Medial rectus (CN III) (LR6 SO4)3 - What ocular muscle • Adducts the eyeball and is involved in horizontal conjugate gaze? 32. Superior rectus (CN III) (LR6 SO4)3 - What ocular muscle • Elevates and adducts the eyeball? 33. Superior Oblique (CN IV) (LR6 SO4)3 - What ocular muscle • Depresses and abducts the eyeball? 34. Inferior Oblique (CN III) (LR6 SO4)3 - What ocular muscle • Elevates and abducts the eyeball? 35. Lateral rectus (CN VI) (LR6 SO4)3 - What ocular muscle • Abducts the eyeball and is involved in horizont al conjugate gaze? 36. Inferior rectus (CN III) (LR6 SO4)3 - What ocular muscle • Depresses and adducts the eyeball? 37. Constrictor pupillae and ciliary muscles - Which muscles of the eye are under parasympathetic control? 38. A left CN X lesion results in the uvu la deviating to the right. (Uvula points away from the affected side.) - Which direction does the uvula deviate in a left vagus nerve lesion? 39. Subdural hematoma is a rupture of the cerebral veins where they enter the superior sagittal sinus. - Is a subdura l hematoma an arterial or venous bleed? 40. CN I, II, III, VI, and XII Add 1 + 1 = 2, 1 + 2 = 3, 1 + 2 + 3 = 6, 1 + 2 + 3 + 6 = 12 - Which CNs are found in the midline of the brainstem? 41. "Lady between two Majors": latissimus dorsi, pectoralis major, and teres major - What muscles insert in or on the intertubercular groove of the humerus? 42. Chorda tympani of CN VII - What nerve supplies taste sensation to the anterior two - thirds of the tongue? 43. Right atrium - What part of the heart forms • The right border? 44. Left ventricle and auricle of left atrium - What part of the heart forms • Left border? 45. Tip of the left ventricle - What part of the heart forms • Apex? 46. Left atrium and tip of the right atrium - What part of the heart forms • Base? 47. Conus arteriosus of the right ventricle and right and left auricles - What part of the heart forms • Superior border? 48. Right ventricle - What part of the heart forms • Anterior wall? 49. Left atrium - What part of the heart forms • Posterior wall? 50. Left ventricle and tip of right ventricle - What part of the heart forms • Diaphragmatic wall? 51. CN V1 carries the sensory and CN VII carries the motor component of the blink reflex. - What nerves carry the sensory and motor components of the blink reflex? 52. Stapedius muscle - What muscle keeps the stapes taut against the oval window? 53. NAVEL: Femoral Nerve, Artery, Vein, Empty space, and Lymphatics/Lacunar ligament - Name the components of the femoral canal, working laterally to medially. 54. Levator palpebrae superioris - What muscle is most superior in the orbit? 55. Fibrous pericardium - What portion of the pericardium adheres to the tunica adventitia of the great vessels? 56. The superior mesente ric vein and the splenic vein (after it receives the inferior mesenteric vein) join to form the portal vein. - What two veins form the portal vein? 57. CN II is the sensory limb and CN III is the motor component through parasympathetic stimulation. - What CNs are responsible for the sensor and motor components of the light reflex? 58. During a lumbar puncture the needle passes through the interlaminar space in the midline of L3 -L4, with the tip of the iliac crest in the flexed position as the landmark. Order of puncture: 1. Skin 2. Superficial fascia 3. Deep fascia 4. Supraspinous ligament 5. Interspinous ligament 6. Interlaminar space 7. Epidural space 8. Dura mater 9. Arachnoid mater 10. Subarachnoid space. (They ask this in some variation every year, so know it .) - Arrange the following layers in the correct sequence through which a needle must pass in a lumbar puncture. • Skin • Subarachnoid space • Interspinous ligament • Dura mater • Deep fascia • Epidural space • Superficial fascia • Interlaminar space • Sup raspinous ligament • Arachnoid mater 59. Ciliary ganglion producing a tonic pupil - What ocular ganglion is affected if the pupil on the affected side sluggishly responds to light with normal accommodation? 60. Vertebra prominens (C7 in 70% of cases, C6 in 20%, T1 in 10%) - What is the name for the most prominent spinous process? 61. SITS —Subscapularis, Infraspinatus, Teres minor, Supraspinatus - What muscles make up the rotator cuff? 62. They are preganglionic sympath etic axons. They are white because they are myelinated. - What is the function of white rami communicantes? 63. Supraspinatus and infraspinatus - What muscle or muscles are innervated by the following nerves? • Suprascapular nerve 64. Subscapularis - What muscle or muscles are innervated by the following nerves? • Upper subscapularis nerve 65. Latissimus dorsi - What muscle or muscles are innervated by the following nerves? • Thoracodorsal nerve 66. Serratus anterior - What muscle or muscles are innervated by the follo wing nerves? • Long thoracic nerve 67. Median nerve - What nerve is associated with the following functions? • Flex the wrist and digits, pronate the wrist and the LOAF (Lumbricales, Opponens pollicis, Abductor pollicis brevis, Flexor pollicis brevis) muscles of the hand 68. Musculocutaneous nerve - What nerve is associated with the following functions? • Flex the shoulder, flex the elbow, and supinate the elbow 69. Ulnar nerve - What nerve is associated with the following functions? • Innervation of the flexor carp i ulnaris, flexor digiti profundus (pinky and ring fingers), and the intrinsic muscles of the hand 70. Radial nerve - What nerve is associated with the following functions? • Supinate the wrist, extend the wrist and digits, extend the shoulder and elbow 71. Tran sverse abdominis - What abdominal muscle runs horizontally, contributes to the posterior rectus sheath, and contributes to form the conjoint tendon? 72. The sensory limb is via CN IX, and the motor limb is from CN X. - Which CNs act as the sensory and motor c omponents of the gag reflex? 73. The right kidney is lower in the abdominal cavity because of the amount of space the liver occupies. - Which kidney is lower? Why? 74. Thoracic and sacral - What two regions of the vertebral column are considered primary curvatur es? 75. Hemiazygous vein - What vein drains the lower third of the thoracic wall? 76. When it crosses the teres major - At what point does the axillary artery become the brachial artery? 77. Left CN XII lesion would result in the tongue pointing to the left (points at the affected side). - What direction would the tongue protrude in a left CN XII lesion? 78. C4 (the upper border of the thyroid cartilage) - At what vertebral level does the common carotid artery bifurcate? 79. False. Females are more likely to develop femoral hernias then males (remember Female's Femoral). - True or false? Males are mo re likely to develop femoral hernias than females. 80. Anterior compartment (it's the blood supply to the posterior compartment) - In what compartment of the thigh is the profundus femoris artery found? 81. The cupola of the lung is posterior to the subclavian a rtery and vein. It is the reason one must be cautious when performing subclavian venipuncture. - Where is the cupola of the lung in relation to the subclavian artery and vein? 82. True. The odontoid process of C2 acts as the vertebral body of C1 allowing late ral rotation of the head. - True or false? The first cervical vertebra has no vertebral body. 83. Gluteus maximus - What is the largest muscle in the body? 84. It both begins and ends at T4 (sternal angle [of Louis]). - At what vertebral levels does the aortic a rch begin and end? 85. Left anterior descending artery - What artery travels with the following veins? • Great cardiac vein 86. Posterior interventricular artery - What artery travels with the following veins? • Middle cardiac vein 87. Right coronary artery - What artery travels with the following veins? • Small cardiac vein 88. Internal carotid artery - The ophthalmic artery is a branch of what vessel? 89. IVC Remember: 1 at T8, 2 at T10, and 3 at T12 - What structure or structures cross the diaphragm at • T8 level? 90. Esophagus and esophageal nerve plexus (CN X) Remember: 1 at T8, 2 at T10, and 3 at T12 - What structure or structures cross the diaphragm at • T10 level? 91. Aorta, azygos vein, and thoracic duct Remember: 1 at T8, 2 at T10, and 3 at T12 - What structure or structures cross the diaphragm at • T12 level? 92. The carotid sinus is a pressure -sensitive (low) receptor, while the carotid body is an oxygen -sensitive (low) receptor. (Remember "Sinus Pressure"). - Is the carotid sinus sensitive to pressure or oxygen? 93. CN XI and X - What nerve or nerves supply general sensation and taste to the posterior third of the tongue? 94. Dilator pupillae muscle - Which muscl e of the eye is under sympathetic control? 95. True. on the right lung the oblique fissure divides the middle from the inferior lobe and the horizontal fissure further divides the middle from the upper lobe. On the left the oblique divides the superior from t he inferior lobe. - True or false? both the left and right lungs have an oblique fissure? 96. Lateral pectoral 2. Lateral head of the median 3. Musculocutaneus - What are the three branches of the lateral cord of the brachial plexus? 97. There are no valves a nd no smooth muscle in the walls of the veins in the face. - What is the major difference between the veins in the face and the veins in the rest of the body? 98. Clavicle, acromion, and glenoid fossa of the scapula and the humerus - Name the bony articulatio ns of the following sites. Be specific. • Shoulder 99. Humerus with ulna (major) and radius (minor) - Name the bony articulations of the following sites. Be specific. • Elbow 100. Radius with scaphoid and lunate and ulna with triquetrum and pisiform (Remember, fo r major articulations, wrist/radius and humerus/ulna = elbow) - Name the bony articulations of the following sites. Be specific. • Wrist 101. Cricothyroid muscle; all other laryngeal muscles are innervated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve. - What is the only l aryngeal muscle innervated by the external laryngeal nerve? 102. Esophagus, SVC, vagus nerve, azygos vein, thoracic duct, thymus, and phrenic nerve - What seven structures are found in more than one mediastinum? 103. There are 10 bronchopulmonary segments on the r ight and 8 on the left. - How many bronchopulmonary segments are on the right lung? Left lung? 104. Ligament of Treitz - The duodenal -jejunal flexure is suspended from the posterior abdominal wall by what? 105. Palatoglossus muscle is innervated by CN X; all other tongue muscles are innervated by CN XII. - What is the only tongue muscle innervated by CN X? 106. Internal abdominal oblique - What abdominal muscle runs in a posteroinferior direction, splits to contribute to the rectus sheath, contributes to the formation of the conjoint tendon, and in men gives rise to the middle spermatic fascia and the cremasteric muscle of the spermatic cord? 107. Inferior pancreaticoduodenal, middle colic, right colic, ileocolic, and 10 to 15 intestinal arteries - What are the five branches of the superior mesenteric artery? 108. S2, S3, S4 —keeps the pee -pee off the floor! - What spinal nerves contribute to the pelvic splanchnic (parasympathetic) nerves that innervate the detrusor muscle of the urinary bladder? 109. Cerebral aqueduct - What connects the third and the fourth ventricles? 110. Axillary nerve and posterior humeral artery - What nerve and artery could be affected in a humeral neck fracture? 111. Indirect hernia passes in the inguinal canal; a direct hernia passes directly through Hesselbach's triangle. - What type of hernia is described as passing through the deep lateral ring of the ingui nal canal? 112. Posterior auricular vein 2. Posterior division of the retromandibular vein - What two vessels come together to form the external jugular vein? 113. The pulmonary vein, which carries oxygenated blood from the lung to the left atrium. - What is th e only vein in the body with a high O2 content? 114. The left gastric, splenic, and common hepatic arteries - What are the three branches of the celiac trunk? 115. Nasopharynx - What region of the pharynx does the eustachian tube enter? 116. The tensor veli palatine i s innervated by the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve; all others are innervated by CN X. - What is the only muscle of the soft palate that is innervated by CN V3? 117. 31 pairs - How many pairs of spinal nerves exit from the spinal cord? 118. Anterior tibial artery - What artery turns into the dorsalis pedis when it crosses the extensor retinaculum? 119. Argyll Robertson pupils - What is the term for pupils that react normally to accommodation but have bilateral loss of constriction in response to light? 120. Foramen of Monro - What connects the lateral ventricles to the third ventricle? 121. Lingual nerve of CN V3 - What nerve supplies general sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue? 122. Visceral pleura - What type of pleura is adherent to the surf ace of the organ? 123. Left coronary artery - What artery supplies the left ventricle, left atrium, and interventricular septum? 124. Waldeyer's ring - Where are the tonsillar tissues? 125. Camper's fascia; Scarpa's fascia is devoid of fat. (Remember campers are fat.) - What is the name of the superficial subcutaneous fascia of the abdomen containing fat? 126. Tinea coli 2. Haustra 3. Epiploic appendages - What are the three anatomic characteristics that differentiate the large bowel from the small bowel and the rectum? 127. The optic disk is the blind spot. - What area of the posterior aspect of the eye has no photoreceptors? 128. Musculophrenic and superior epigastric arteries - At the level of rib 6, the internal thoracic artery divides into what two arteries? 129. Housemaid's kn ee - What is the name of inflammation of the prepatellar bursa? 130. C1 through C4 - What nerve roots constitute the cervical plexus? 131. Middle - Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Heart and pericardium 132. Posterior - Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Descending aorta 133. Superior and anterior - Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Thymus 134. Superior and middle - Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Phrenic nerve 135. Superior and posterior - Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Esophagus 136. Superior - Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Trachea 137. Middle - Name t he compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Ascending aorta 138. Superior and posterior - Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Thoracic duct 139. Superior and poster ior - Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Azygos vein 140. Superior and middle - Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • SVC 141. Posterior - Name the com partment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Splanchnic nerves 142. Superior - Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Aortic arch 143. Middle - Name the compartment of the me diastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • IVC 144. Posterior - Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Vagus nerve 145. Superior - Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Brachiocephalic vein 146. Middle - Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Pulmonary artery and veins 147. Superior - Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Left common carotid artery 148. Superior - Name the compartment of the mediastinum associated with the following thoracic structures: • Left subclavian arte ry 149. Adrenal medulla - What is the only organ in the body supplied by preganglionic sympathetic fibers? 150. The left is a branch of the aortic arch, while the right is a branch of the brachiocephalic trunk. - The left subclavian artery is a branch of what arte ry? 151. Masseter 2. Temporalis 3. Medial pterygoid 4. Lateral pterygoid - What are the four muscles of mastication? 152. Rib 7 articulates with T7 and T8. Each rib articulates with the corresponding numerical vertebral body and the vertebral body below it. - With what thoracic vertebra or vertebrae does rib 7 articulate? 153. Left colic, superior rectal, and sigmoidal arteries - What are the three branches of the inferior mesenteric artery? 154. Mitral (bicuspid) valve - What is the only valve in the heart with two cus ps? 155. Caput medusa, internal hemorrhoids, esophageal varices, retroperitoneal varices, and splenomegaly - What are five clinical signs of portal HTN? 156. Iliocostalis 2. Longissimus 3. Spinalis ("I Love Science" muscles) - What three muscles constitute the erector spinae? 157. Median nerve - What nerve is compromised in carpal tunnel syndrome? 158. The popliteal artery, the deepest structure in the popliteal fossa, risks injury in a supracondylar fracture of the femur. - What vascular injury may result from a suprac ondylar fracture of the femur? 159. Radial nerve and the profunda brachii artery - What nerve and artery could be affected in a midshaft humeral fracture? 160. . Duodenum (all but the first part) 2. Ascending Colon 3. Ureters 4. Pancreas 5. Supra renal glands (adr enals) 6. Descending colon 7. Aorta 8. Kidneys 9. Rectum 10. IVC D CUPS DAKRI is the mnemonic, everything else is covered with peritoneum - Name the 10 retroperitoneal organs. 161. C3, C4, and C5 keep the diaphragm alive! - Ventral rami of what cervical nerves constitute the phrenic nerve? 162. Ampulla - What is the region of the fallopian tube where fertilization most commonly occurs? 163. Foramen of Winslow - What foramen must be traversed for entry into the lesser peritoneal sac? 164. CN XI, vertebral arteries - Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: • Foramen magnum 165. Middle meningeal artery - Name the structure that e nters or exits the following foramina: • Foramen spinosum 166. CN V2 - Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: • Foramen rotundum 167. CN V3 and the lesser petrosal nerve - Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: • F oramen ovale 168. CN IX, X, and XI; sigmoid sinus - Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: • Jugular foramen 169. Internal carotid artery and sympathetic plexus - Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: • Carotid ca nal 170. CN VII - Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: • Stylomastoid foramen 171. CN XII - Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: • Hypoglossal canal 172. CN VII and VIII - Name the structure that enters or exits th e following foramina: • Internal auditory meatus 173. CN II and ophthalmic artery - Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: • Optic canal 174. CN I - Name the structure that enters or exits the following foramina: • Cribriform plate 175. Subcla vian vein - What vessel can be found atop the scalene anterior? 176. Motor aspect - What component of the corneal reflex is lost in a CN VII deficit? 177. A right CN V lesion results in weakened muscles of mastication, and the jaw deviates to the right. - A motor lesion to the right CN V results in deviation of the jaw to which side? 178. Ulnar and radial arteries (ulnar is the main supplier) - What two arteries join to form the superficial and deep palmar arches of the hand? 179. Round and ovarian ligaments - What two ligaments of the uterus are remnants of the gubernaculum? 180. L4 to S3 (L2 to L4, thigh; L4 to S3, leg) - What segments of the lumbosacral plexus form th e following nerves? • Tibial nerve 181. L4 to S3 (L2 to L4, thigh; L4 to S3, leg) - What segments of the lumbosacral plexus form the following nerves? • Common peroneal nerve 182. L2 to L4 (L2 to L4, thigh; L4 to S3, leg) - What segments of the lumbosacral plexus form the following nerves? • Femoral nerve 183. L2 to L4 (L2 to L4, thigh; L4 to S3, leg) - What segments of the lumbosacral plexus form the following nerves? • Obturator nerve 184. Left: stomach, spleen, and left kidney; right: liver, duodenum, and right kidney - What three structures are in contact with the left colic flexure? With the right colic flexure? 185. Sartorius 2. Gracilis 3. Semitendinous - What three muscles constitute the pes anserinus? 186. Stylopharyngeus muscle is innervated by CN IX; all other pharyng eal muscles are innervated by CN X. - What is the only pharyngeal muscle not innervated by CN X? 187. The right and left pulmonary arteries, the only arteries that carry deoxygenated blood - What vessels carry deoxygenated blood into the lungs from the right v entricle? 188. Common peroneal nerve - Fracture of the fibular neck, resulting in foot drop, is an injury of what nerve? 189. Superior vena cava - What vein is formed by the union of the right and left brachiocephalic veins? 190. The superior border of the inferior in tercostal rib is your landmark for a pleural tap because along the inferior border of each rib is the neurovascular bundle, and you would risk injury if you went below the rib. - If inserting a needle to perform a pleural tap or insertion of a chest tube, do you use the inferior or the superior border of a rib as your landmark? Why? 191. Popliteus - What muscle laterally rotates the femur to unlock the knee? 192. Posterior chamber - What chamber of the eye lies between the iris and the lens? 193. Right coronary artery - What artery supplies the right atrium, right ventricle, sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes? 194. Dorsal scapular 2. Suprascapular 3. Long thoracic 4. Nerve to subclavius - What four branches of the brachial plexus arise prior to the first rib? 195. T9 - What vertebral level is marked by the xiphoid process? 196. Common peroneal nerve - What lower extremity nerve is described by the following motor loss? • Loss of eversion; inversion, dorsiflexion, and plantarflexion of the foot 197. Tibial nerve - What lower extremity nerve is described by the following motor loss? • Loss of flexion of the knees and toes, plantarflexion, and weakened inversion 198. Femoral nerve - What lower extremity nerve is described by the following motor loss? • Loss of knee extension, weakened hip flexion 199. Superior gluteal nerve - What lower extremity nerve is described by the following motor loss? • Loss of abduction of the hip resulting in Trend elenburg gait 200. Sciatic nerve - What lower extremity nerve is described by the following motor loss? • Loss of flexion of the knee and all function below the knee, weakened extension of the thigh 201. Obturator nerve - What lower extremity nerve is described by the following motor loss? • Loss of adduction of the thigh 202. Median nerve lesion - What nerve lesion presents with ape or simian hand as its sign? 203. Deltoid - What muscle acts in all ranges of motion of the arm? 204. Inferior phrenic artery - What is the first branch of the abdominal artery? 205. The right gonadal vein drains into the inferior vena cava directly, and the left gonadal vein drains into the left renal vein. - What vessel does the right gonadal vein drain into? 206. Trapezius and sternocleidomastoid - What two muscles do you test to see wh ether CN XI is intact? 207. CN IX and X - What two CNs are responsible for the carotid body and sinus reflexes? 208. T4 vertebral level posteriorly and anteriorly at the sternal angle (angle of Louis). - At what vertebral level does the trachea bifurcate? 209. Resorb CSF into the blood - What is the function of the arachnoid granulations? 210. Long thoracic nerve. To avoid confusing long thoracic nerve and lateral thoracic artery: long has an n for nerve; lateral has an a for artery. - Damage to what nerve will give you wi nged scapula? 211. Nucleus pulposus - What portion of the intervertebral disk is a remnant of the notochord? 212. Puborectalis - What component of the pelvic diaphragm forms the rectal sling (muscle of continence)? 213. Four Ms and a U 1. Median 2. Medial antebrachial 3. Medial pectoral 4. Medial brachial cutaneus 5. Ulnar - What are the five branches of the median cord of the brachial plexus? 214. Humerus (between the medial epicondyle and the trochlea) - What bone houses the ulnar groove? 215. Maxillary division of CN V and glossopharyngeal nerves - What CN is associated with the sensory innervation of • Nasopharynx? 216. Glossopharyngeal nerve - What CN is associated with the sensory innervation of • Oropharynx? 217. Vagus nerve - What CN is associated with the sensory innervation o f • Laryngopharynx? 218. Pia mater - What protective covering adheres to the spinal cord and CNS tissue? 219. Urinary trigone - What is the name of the urinary bladder where the ureters enter and the urethra exits? 220. Volkmann's contracture - What is the term when the brachial artery is compressed, resulting in ischemic contracture of the hand? 221. Chordae tendineae - What attaches the cusps of the valves to the papillary muscles in the heart? 222. Internal iliac nodes - What is the lymphatic drainage of the pelvic organs? 223. Infrapatellar bursa - What bursa is inflamed in clergyman's knee? 224. Psoas major - What muscle is the chief flexor of the hip? 225. Parasympathetic stimulation, via the vagus nerve, results in bronchoconstriction, whereas sympathetic stimulation results in bronchodilation. - What component of the ANS, when stimulated, results in bronchoconstriction? 226. The Palmar interosseus ADducts, whereas the Dorsal interosseus ABducts (PAD and DAB) - What muscles in the hand addu ct the fingers? 227. Subarachnoid hematoma - What type of cerebral bleed is due to a rupture of a berry aneurysm in the circle of Willis? 228. Temporal 2. Zygomatic 3. Buccal 4. Mandibular 5. Cervical (Two Zebras Bit My Clavicle.) - What are the five terminal b ranches of the facial nerve? 229. Medial meniscus - What structure of the knee is described thus? • C -shaped shock absorber; aids in attachment of the tibia to the femur via the medial collateral ligament 230. Posterior cruciate ligament - What structure of the kn ee is described thus? • Prevents posterior displacement and has medial -to-lateral attachment on the tibia 231. Lateral collateral ligament - What structure of the knee is described thus? • Prevents adduction 232. ACL - What structure of the knee is described thus? • Prevents anterior displacement and has lateral -to-medial attachment on the tibia 233. Medial collateral ligament - What structure of the knee is described thus? • Prevents abduction 234. The sensory component is through the superior laryngeal nerve, and the motor limb is via the recurrent laryngeal nerve. - What branches of CN X are the sensory and motor components of the cough reflex? Be specific. 235. The internal laryngeal nerve supplies se nsory information from above the vocal cords while the recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies sensory information below. - What nerves provide sensory innervation above the vocal cords? Below the vocal cords? 236. First pharyngeal groove; all others degenerate. - From what pharyngeal groove is the external auditory meatus derived? 237. Phallus - What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure? • Corpus cavernosus, corpus spongiosum, and glans and body of the penis 238. Labioscrotal swelling - What embryonic structu re forms the adult male structure? • Scrotum 239. Urogenital sinus - What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure? • Urinary bladder, urethra, prostate gland, bulbourethral gland 240. Gonads - What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure? • T estes, seminiferous tubules, and rete testes 241. Urogenital folds - What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure? • Ventral part of the penis 242. Gubernaculum - What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure? • Gubernaculum testes 243. Mesonephri c duct - What embryonic structure forms the adult male structure? • Epididymis, ductus deferens, seminal vesicle, and ejaculatory duct 244. PGE and intrauterine or neonatal asphyxia maintain patency of the ductus arteriosus. Indomethacin, ACh, and catecholamin es promote closure of the ductus arteriosus. - Which PG is associated with maintaining a PDA? 245. 6 weeks 10 weeks - When does the primitive gut herniate out of the embryo? When does it go back into the embryo? 246. Cleft palate - What results when the palatine p rominences fail to fuse with the other side? 247. Vitelline fistula - What is the term for a direct connection between the intestine and the external environment through the umbilicus because the vitelline duct persists? 248. From the wall of the yolk sac - Where do the primordial germ cells arise? 249. Male pseudo -intersexuality (hermaphrodite); these individuals are 46XY. - What disorder is due to a 5 --reductase deficiency, resulting in testicular tissue and stunted male external genitalia? 250. The zygote divides mitotically; only germ cells divide meiotic ally. - Does the zygote divide mitotically or meiotically? 251. Third week - During what embryonic week does the intraembryonic coelom form? 252. Proencephalon - Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or r hombencephalon). • Cerebral hemispheres 253. Mesencephalon - Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Midbrain 254. Rhombencephalon - Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Cerebellum 255. Rhombencephalon - Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Medulla 256. Proencephalon - Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Diencephalon 257. Rhombencephalon - Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombenceph alon). • Metencephalon 258. Proencephalon - Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Telencephalon 259. Proencephalon - Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Thalamus 260. Proencephalon* *diencephalon derivative - Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Eye 261. Rhombencephalon - Nam e the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Pons 262. Rhombencephalon - Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephal on). • Myelencephalon 263. Proencephalon* *diencephalon derivative - Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Pineal gland 264. Mesencephalon - Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Cerebral aqueduct 265. Proencephalon* *diencephalon derivative - Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Neurohypophysis 266. Proencephalon - Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Third ventricle 267. Proencephalon* *diencephalon derivative - Name the primary vesicle the following structures are deriv ed from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Hypothalamus 268. Proencephalon - Name the primary vesicle the following structures are derived from (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or rhombencephalon). • Lateral ventricles 269. Gestational trophoblast ic neoplasia (GTN or choriocarcinoma) - What malignant tumor of the trophoblast causes high levels of hCG and may occur after a hydatidiform mole, abortion, or normal pregnancy? 270. Respiratory distress syndrome; treatment with cortisol and thyroxine can incr ease production of surfactant. - What syndrome is due to a deficiency of surfactant? 271. None; they are not formed until a girl reaches puberty. - How many oogonia are present at birth? 272. Transposition of the great vessels arises from a failure of the aorticop ulmonary septum to grow in a spiral. - What right -to-left shunt occurs when the aorta opens into the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk opens into the left ventricle? 273. Ligament teres - What are the adult remnants of the following structures? • Left umbilical vein 274. Fossa ovale - What are the adult remnants of the following structures? • Foramen ovale 275. Medial umbilical ligaments - What are the adult remnants of the following structures? • Right and left umbilical arteries 276. Ligamentum arteriosum - What ar e the adult remnants of the following structures? • Ductus arteriosus 277. Ligamentum venosum - What are the adult remnants of the following structures? • Ductus venosus 278. Treacher Collins syndrome - Mandibular hypoplasia, down -slanted palpebral fissures, colobomas, malformed ears, and zygomatic hypoplasia are commonly seen in what pharyngeal arch 1 abnormality? 279. SHIP: Shifting of the aorta, Hypertrophy of the right ventricl e, Interventricular septal defect, Pulmonary stenosis - What is the tetrad of tetralogy of Fallot? 280. Hypospadia - What is the term for the external urethra opening onto the ventral surface of the penis? 281. CN V - What CN is associated with the • First pharyng eal arch? 282. CN VII - What CN is associated with the • Second pharyngeal arch? 283. CN IX - What CN is associated with the • Third pharyngeal arch? 284. CN X - What CN is associated with the • Fourth pharyngeal arch? 285. None; it degenerates. - What CN is associated wi th the • Fifth pharyngeal arch? 286. CN X - What CN is associated with the • Sixth pharyngeal arch? 287. Hirschsprung's disease (colonic gangliosus) - What disease results in a failure of neural crest cells to migrate to the myenteric plexus of the sigmoid colon a nd rectum? 288. DiGeorge's syndrome - What immunologic syndrome is due to a pharyngeal pouch 3 and 4 failure? 289. The notochord - What embryonic structure, around day 19, tells the ectoderm above it to differentiate into neural tissue? 290. Cryptorchidism; normally t he testes descend into the scrotum within 3 months of birth. - What is the term for failure of the testes to descend into the scrotum? 291. Membranous septal defects are interventricular; a persistent patent ovale results in an interatrial septal defect. - Is a membranous septal defect more commonly interventricular or interatrial? 292. The second pharyngeal pouch and groove - What pharyngeal pouch and groove persist when a pharyngeal fistula is formed? 293. hCG can be detected in the blood by day 8 and in the urine by day 10. - How early can a pregnancy be detected by hCG assays in the blood ? In urine? 294. First M PITS for pharyngeal pouch derivatives - From what pharyngeal pouch is the following structure derived? • Middle ear 295. Fourth M PITS for pharyngeal pouch derivatives - From what pharyngeal pouch is the following structure derived? • Supe rior parathyroid gland and ultimobranchial body of the thyroid 296. Third M PITS for pharyngeal pouch derivatives - From what pharyngeal pouch is the following structure derived? • Inferior parathyroid gland and thymus 297. Second M PITS for pharyngeal pouch deriv atives - From what pharyngeal pouch is the following structure derived? • Palatine tonsil 298. Epispadia - What is the term for the external urethra opening onto the dorsal surface of the penis? 299. True. The elimination of the unfertilized egg is menses. - True or false? In females, meiosis II is incomplete unless fertilization takes place. 300. Muscles of the internal eye - What adult structures are derived from preotic somites? 301. Extrahepatic biliary atresia - What disorder is associated with jaundice, white stools, and dark urine due to biliary duct occlusion secondary to incomplete recanalization? 302. hCG - What hormone, produced by the syncytiotrophoblast, stimulates the production of progesterone by the corpus luteum? 303. Four - How many mature sperm are produced by on e type B spermatogonium? 304. They are all formed by the fifth month of fetal life. - All primary oocytes in females are formed by what age? 305. Truncus arteriosus - From what embryonic structure are the following structures derived? • The ascending aorta and the pulmonary trunk 306. Sinus venosus - From what embryonic structure are the following structures derived? • The sinus venarum, coronary sinus, and the oblique vein of the left atrium 307. Primitive ventricle - From what embryonic structure are the following structures derived? • The right and left ventricles 308. Bulbus cordis - From what embryonic structure are the following structures derived? • The aortic vestibule and the conus arteriosus 309. Primitive atrium - From what embryonic structure are the following structures derived? • The right and left atria 310. Eisenmenger's syndrome - After a longstanding left -to-right shunt reverses, causing cyanosis, and becomes a right -to-left shunt, what is it t ermed? 311. True. The thyroid gland, the lungs, and the pharyngeal pouches are foregut derivatives that are not a component of the gastrointestinal system. - True or false? The thyroid gland is an embryologic foregut derivative. 312. Mesonephric duct (ureteric bud ) - What embryonic structure forms the following adult structures? • Collecting ducts, calyces, renal pelvis, and ureter 313. Urogenital sinus - What embryonic structure forms the following adult structures? • Urinary bladder and urethra 314. Phallus, urogenital f olds, and labioscrotal swellings - What embryonic structure forms the following adult structures? • External genitalia 315. Metanephros - What embryonic structure forms the following adult structures? • Nephrons, kidney 316. Urachus - What embryonic structure form s the following adult structures? • Median umbilical ligament 317. TRUE - True or false? The epithelial lining of the urinary bladder and the urethra are embryologic hindgut derivatives. 318. The lesser omentum (consisting of the hepatoduodenal and hepatogastri c ligaments) 2. Falciform ligament 3. Coronary ligament of the liver 4. Triangular ligament of the liver Liver is ventral; all other ligaments are dorsal mesentery derivatives. - Name the four ventral mesentery derivatives. 319. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis d ue to hypertrophy of the muscularis externa, resulting in a narrowed pyloric outlet - Projectile nonbilious vomiting and a small knot at the right costal margin (olive sign) are hallmarks of what embryonic disorder? 320. Meiosis I; disjunction with centromere splitting occurs during meiosis II. - The separation of 46 homologous chromosomes without splitting of the centromeres occurs during what phase of meiosis? 321. Third week; they are derived from the wall of the yolk sac. - Blood and its vessels form during what embryonic week? 322. Phallus - What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures? • Glans clitoris, corpus cavernosus, and spongiosum 323. Mesonephric duc t - What embryonic structure forms the adult female structures? • Gartner's duct