(Test Bank) Comprehensive Perinatal & Pediatric Respiratory Care

Whitaker,Eberle,Trujillo, 4

Medicine

Test Bank

4th Edition

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Test Bank for Comprehensive Perinatal & Pediatric Respiratory Care, The downloadable file consists of 173 pages, and the total size of the file is 2.81 MB. Purchase now only for highly discounted price.

Author(s): Whitaker, Eberle, Trujillo

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Study Note Preview

Chapter 1 1. Chemoreceptors play a role in the regulation of a. cardiac contractility b. hypertension *c. ventilation d. blood vessel diameter 2. At what point in development does blood begin to flow? a. immediately after delivery b. immediately preceding delivery *c. around the third week d. two days after conception 3. Pressures in the right, or venous system, compared to those in the left, or arterial system of the fetus are *a. higher b. incomplete c. lower d. the same 4. The central and peripheral nervous system arise from which germ layer? a. endoderm b. philoderm (Comprehensive Perinatal & Pediatric Respiratory Care 4e Kent Whitaker, Paul Eberle, Lisa Trujillo) (Test Bank, Correct Answer are marked with*)c. mesoderm *d. ectoderm 5. Normally, fetal lung fluid moves steadily at what rate? a. 15 L/hour b. 1 ml/hour *c. 15 ml/hour d. 100 ml/hour 6. Fetal lung maturity can b e predicted by withdrawing a sample of amniotic fluid and comparing the level of phosphatidylglycerol (PG) to a. ethanol *b. sphingomyelin c. lecithin d. serum 7. Which of the following carries the fresh blood from the placenta through the umbilical c ord and into the fetus? *a. umbilical vein b. umbilical artery c. hepatic portal vein d. aorta 8. Which of the following prevents the bending or pinching of the umbilical cord that may stop blood flow to the infant? a. arteries *b. Wharton’s jelly c. veins d. amnion 9. Baroreceptors are stimulated by a. pH b. ventilation c. oxygen *d. stretch 10. Which condition is characterized by the rapid deterioration in the respiratory status of a newborn following delivery? *a. respiratory distress syndro me (RDS) b. pneumonia c. sudden acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) d. asthma 11. The change from fetal circulation to adult circulation is called a. pulmonary pressure *b. transition c. coordination d. resuscitation 12. Polyhydramnios indicates a pro blem with t he a. umbilical cord b. urinating mechanism of the fetus *c. swallowing mechanism of the fetus d. cardiovascular function of the fetus 13. The thicker, outer layer of the embryonic disc, or blastoderm, is the a. embryo *b. ectoderm c. endod erm d. meso derm 14. Why must the lung fluid be completely evacuated from the lungs at birth? *a. To allow for unhindered ventilation in the neonate b. To collapse the airways during birth c. To reduce the size of the infant passing through the birth ca nal d. To allow the infant to nurse 15. Alveoli continue to a. increase in number for 2 years after birth *b. increase in number for 8 years after birth c. maintain their count throughout childhood as the lungs are completely developed at birth d. increase in num ber for the entire lifetime 16. By the fifth week of development, the single atrium is divided into two separate chambers by the a. pulmonary artery b. sinus venosus *c. septum primum d. truncus arteriosus 17. At which of the following st ages does t he ovum enter the uterus? *a. morula b. blastomeres c. blastocyst d. trophoblast 18. The foramen ovale is located between the right atrium and a. lungs b. right ventricle c. left ventricle *d. left atrium 19. Secondary crests will event ually form a. pulmonary surfactant b. goblet cells c. serous cells *d. true alveoli 20. At the end of 40 weeks gestation, how much fluid is present in the amnion? a. 10 milliliters b. 10 liters c. 1 milliliter *d. 1 liter 21. At which stage of feta l lung deve lopment does the greatest amount of vascularization occur? a. pseudoglandular *b. canalicular c. saccular d. embryonal 22. Which substance works to lower surface tension on the alveolar wall? a. blood b. mucus c. serum *d. surfactant 23. Exposure t o which of the following can lead to severe congenital malformations? a. food coloring *b. radiation c. vitamins d. sugar 24. The first shunt encountered after blood enters the fetal abdominal cavity is the *a. ductus venosus b. foramen ova le c. infer ior vena cava d. superior vena cava 25. As the radius of a bubble, or alveolus, decreases, the surface tension a. fluctuates unpredictably b. stays the same c. decreases *d. increases Chapter 2 1. During routine visits to her obstetrician, a pregnant woman’s fetal heart rate (FHR) was near 140 bpm; however, as she neared delivery, the FHR dropped to approximately 120 bpm. What course of action should be taken? a. She should be schedu led for a C aesarian section as soon as possible. *b. Nothing - this is a normal response. c. Preparations should be made for the delivery of twins. d. Labor should be induced as soon as possible. 2. Vibroacoustic stimulation is performed on an expectant mother. Wh at is the normal fetal response? a. increase in heart rate variability *b. acceleration of heart rate c. no change in heart rate d. deceleration of heart rate 3. Which of the following is a contraindication to the performance of the contract ion stress test (CST)? a. previous stress test b. There are no contraindications for the CST. c. a history of miscarriage *d. previous uterine rupture 4. Fetal scalp pH was measured and the result was 7.22. This result indicates a. a normal result b. an inconcl usive result *c. slight asphyxia d. severe asphyxia 5. A 25 -year-old pregnant woman at 31 weeks gestation has a blood sample drawn for measurement of human placental lactogen (HPL). The result is 3.6 µg/ml. This could indicate a. a properly functionin g fetal liver b. a normal result c. a neural tube defect *d. fetal compromise 6. A mother first senses fetal movement *a. between 16 and 20 weeks gestation b. as early as 7 weeks c. between 20 and 26 weeks gestation d. between 28 and 34 week s 7. Baseline heart rate can be determined by watching the rate tracing for at least a. 5 minutes b. 24 hours c. 1 hour *d. 10 minutes 8. An expectant mother has amniocentesis performed and alpha -fetoprotein (AFP) levels are abnormally high. This co uld indicat e a. Down syndrome *b. a neural tube defect c. Rh incompatibility d. fetal lung immaturity 9. Sympathomimetic drugs, such as ritodrine, salbutamol, and terbutaline, are administered to a pregnant woman to a. reduce fetal heart rate *b. stop contracti ons c. reduce maternal blood pressure d. induce contractions 10. A fetus has aspirated meconium into the trachea and airways. This condition is referred to as a. meconium staining b. pneumonia *c. meconium aspiration syndrome d. meconium air way syndrom e 11. Which type of deceleration would result from the umbilical cord being wrapped around an infant’s neck? a. Type I b. Type IV c. Type II *d. Type III 12. Increased levels of bilirubin in amniotic fluid may indicate *a. Rh incompatibi lity b. Dow n syndrome c. kidney immaturity d. the presence of meconium 13. A pregnant woman is being seen at her physician’s office for a midtrimester amniocentesis. At what stage of pregnancy is this woman? a. first trimester b. within the first 15 we eks followi ng the last menstrual period *c. second or third trimester d. 30 days before delivery 14. The acronym EDC stands for a. estimated date of conception b. estimated delivery and conception *c. estimated date of confinement d. expected date of c onfinement 15. A 28 -year-old pregnant woman sees her doctor for an ultrasound to determine fetal age. Which of the following methods might be utilized during her ultrasound to determine this? a. fetal heart rate determination b. abdominal length *c. biparietal di ameter d. doppler velocimetry 16. A biophysical profile includes results from which of the following tests? a. Fetal breathing, meconium staining, fetal tone, reactive NST, amniotic fluid volume b. Fetal breathing, gross body movement, fetal tone, estr iol measurement, amniotic fluid volume *c. Fetal breathing, gross body movement, fetal tone, reactive NST, amniotic fluid volume d. Fetal breathing, gross body movement, fetal tone, non -reactive NST, amniotic fluid volume 17. The first day of a woman's last menstrual period was March 25. What is the estimated date of confinement (EDC)? a. April 25 b. February 1 c. January 25 *d. January 1 18. A fetus displayed a positive CST with a negative NST. What condition might the fetus have? *a. prolonged hyp oxia b. brief hypoxia c. acidosis d. hypercapnea 19. A 24 -hour urine sample was collected from a pregnant woman and her results indicate an elevated level of estriol. This likely indicates *a. a normal, healthy fetus b. placental insufficien cy c. fetal distress d. growth retardation 20. A pregnant woman visits a clinic for prenatal care. Which of the following high -risk factors represent a socioeconomic factor? a. BMI greater than 31 *b. minority status c. previous ectopic pregnancy d. maternal age under 16 21. The fundus of a woman's uterus is 19 centimeters above the symphysis pubis. What is the gestational age of the fetus? a. 40 weeks b. 38 weeks *c. 19 weeks d. 20 weeks 22. Which of the following factors indicate a high -risk pr egnancy? a. non-smoker b. maternal age over 16 c. height greater than 5 feet *d. unwed status, especially adolescent 23. Electrodes placed on the mother’s abdomen can pick up the electrical activity of a. the maternal heart only b. fetal blood vessels *c. both t he maternal and fetal heart d. the fetal heart only 24. A fetus is experiencing bradycardia due to asphyxia. Which of the following treatments may reduce the severity of the asphyxia? a. sympathomimetic drug administration b. administration of beta -blockers to the mother c. oxygen administration to the fetus *d. oxygen administration to the mother 25. Which method of FHR monitoring is the most accurate? a. use of a stethoscope *b. placement of an electrode into the fetal scalp c. placemen t of electr odes on the mother’s abdomen d. external abdominal transducer Chapter 3 1. Cesarean deliveries are performed when which of the following criteria are met? *a. prior cesarean delivery b. maternal diabetes c. normal fetal heart rate d. vertex presentation 2. The presence of surfactant on the alveoli reduces the a. airway resistance b. volume c. pressure *d. surface tension 3. A woman in labor is told by the nurse that she is dilated to 10 cm. This indicates that the cervix is a. not dilated at all b. partially dilated *c. fully dilated d. minimally dilate d 4. A woman who suffered from prolonged labor delivered an infant with severe facial edema. The likely presentation was a. transverse lie b. shoulder c. vertex *d. face 5. A woman’s first and second stages of labor exceed 20 hours. This is referred to as a. tocolysi b. preterm birth *c. dystocia d. normal labor 6. What percentage of births occurs with the fetus in the head -down or vertex (normal) position? a. 85% b. 90% c. 50% *d. 95% 7. Maternal side effects of adrenergic drugs include a. hypoglycemi a *b. tachycardia c. bradycardia d. hyperkalemia 8. A pregnant woman is suffering from abruptio placentae and her symptoms are as follows: external vaginal bleeding and she is in shock with persistent abdominal pain. The fetus did not surviv e. What is the likely grade of the abruptio placentae? a. Grade 2 *b. Grade 3 c. Grade 0 d. Grade 1 9. What is the term used to describe delivery of a fetus by way of a surgical incision through the maternal abdomen and uterus? *a. cesarean delivery b. assisted vaginal delivery c. vacuum extractor d. forceps delivery 10. Preeclampsia typically develops a. during the first trimester b. during the last trimester c. anytime during gestation *d. after week 20 of gestation 11. Initiation of the first breath aft er delivery includes a. decreased PaCO 2 b. increased temperature of the outside environment *c. increased PaCO 2 d. increased PaO 2 12. Which of the following is a medical risk factor for premature labor? a. Smoking b. Alcoholism c. Use of il legal drugs *d. Infection with fever during pregnancy 13. PaO2 decreases and PaCO 2 increases during birth stimulate a. nociceptors b. mechanoreceptors c. baroreceptors *d. chemoreceptors 14. Prolapse of the umbilical cord can be dangerous to the fet us as it ca n lead to a. hypoglycemia b. hyperkalemia c. hyperglycemia *d. hypoxia 15. A pregnant woman is informed by her physician that she has placenta previa. This means that the blastocyst has attached a. within the fallopian tubes b. near the up per portion of the uterine cavity *c. in the lower portion of the uterus d. outside the uterus 16. Which type of placenta previa completely covers the opening of the cervix? a. partial placenta previa b. abuptio placentae c. low implantation *d. total placenta pr evia 17. Which of the following types of twins originate from one ovum? a. female twins b. placental twins c. fraternal twins *d. identical twins 18. Which of the following can cause dystocia? *a. excessive fetal size b. preterm labor c. maternal o besity d. decreased fetal size 19. Fetal mortality reaches nearly 50% in cases of abruptio placentae due to a. hypertension *b. blood loss c. hypoxia d. hypoglycemia 20. Which of the following is a normal fetal presentation? a. buttocks -down positi on b. brow *c. vertex d. face 21. Which of the following events occur first in the birth process? a. separation of the placenta b. dilation of the cervix *c. rupture of the membranes d. contraction of the uterus 22. Expulsion of the place nta can be assisted by placing the neonate at the mother’s breast. This stimulates the release of *a. oxytocin b. insulin c. prolactin d. cortisol 23. Why would a physician give a pregnant woman a beta -sympathomimetic drug? a. To increase contractions b. To decr ease fetal blood glucose levels *c. To prevent premature labor d. To increase cervical dilation 24. The descent of the fetus through the birth canal occurs during which stage of labor? a. Stage III b. Stage I *c. Stage II d. Stage IV 25. A station o f 0 indicates that the head of the fetus is a. above the ischial spines b. below the ischial spines *c. engaged in the birth canal d. not in the normal position Chapter 4 1. A nonvigorous infant is being resuscitated and thick meconium is present. Which of the following is indicated? a. CPAP *b. intubation c. oxygen mask d. chest compressions 2. An infant is born in apnea of unknown duration. The best course of action would be to a. monitor the newborn’s heart rate *b. begin resuscitative efforts immediately c. try to stimulate the infant d. do nothing - this is normal at birth 3. Which of the following is correct regarding umbilical vessels? a. The cord contains 1 artery and 1 vein. *b. The cord contains 2 arteries and 1 vein. c. The cord contains 2 arteries and 2 veins. d. The cord contains 2 veins and 1 artery. 4. Which of the following is the correct dose of epinephrine (concentration 1:10,000) for a 3 kg infant during neonatal resuscitation? a. 0.3-0.9 L b. 0.1-0.3 ml *c. 0.9-1.5 ml d. 0.4-1.2 ml 5. The 5 -minute Apgar score is predictive of which of the following? *a. future impairment b. previous impairment c. maternal status d. The 5 -minute A pgar score is not predictive. 6. A neonate is being evaluated after being warmed, dried, and having his/her airways opened. The heart rate is determined to be 85 bpm. What action should be taken? *a. Initiate positive -pressure ventilation (PPV). b. Rewarm the n eonate. c. No action should be taken. d. Evaluate the neonate’s respiratory effort and color. 7. In preparing for resuscitation, anticipation of a high -risk delivery requires a. proper equipment b. at least one person trained in all necessar y skills *c. continuous monitoring during labor and delivery d. equipment in a variety of sizes to suit various gestational ages 8. Apgar scores can be performed every a. minute up to 20 minutes b. minute up to 5 minutes *c. 5 minutes up to 20 minutes d. 5 minute s up to 60 minutes 9. Brown fat stores in the fetus accumulate a. during the first trimester *b. during the third trimester only c. during the second and third trimester d. immediately prior to birth 10. The rate of glucose uptake by the fetus throu gh the placenta is directly related to a. maternal body fat percentage b. fetal blood glucose level c. fetal glycogen level *d. maternal blood glucose level 11. Which of the following is the only medication indicated for use during acute sta ges of neon atal resuscitation? *a. epinephrine b. sodium bicarbonate c. naloxone d. dopamine 12. Babies born to diabetic mothers often suffer from hypoglycemia caused by a. hyperkalemia b. starvation c. hypoinsulinism *d. hyperinsulinism 13. The f irst step i n resuscitating the neonate is to a. evaluate the neonate’s color *b. provide thermoregulation c. assess the condition of the neonate d. open the airway 14. Which of the following volume expanders should only be used in extreme cases of docu mented fetal anemia? *a. O Rh -negative packed red blood cells b. water c. Ringer’s lactate d. normal saline 15. Asphyxia is a combination of a. hypoxia, hyperglycemia, and acidosis b. hyperoxia, hyperglycemia, and alkalosis c. hypoxia, hypercapnia, an d alkalosis *d. hypoxia, hypercapnia, and acidosis 16. A neonatal resuscitation bag must be capable of delivering