(Test Bank) A Practical Introduction to Enterprise Network and Security Management

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Test Bank for A Practical Introduction to Enterprise Network and Security Management, The downloadable file consists of 170 pages, and the total size of the file is 3.25 MB. Purchase now only for highly discounted price.

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Test Bank for A Practical Introduction to Enterprise Network and Security Management, 2e Bongsik Shin (All Chapters) Keys are marked with an “*”. CHAPTER 1 TEXTBOOK CHAPTER REVIEW QUESTIONS 1. ________ represents the layout of network nodes and links. A) Network node B) Network domain C) Network topology * D) Network architecture E) Network blueprint 2. Choose an ACCURATE statement regarding the relationship between hosts, interme diary devices, and network nodes. A) Hosts are intermediary devices. B) Hosts are also called networking devices. C) Intermediary devices include network nodes and hosts. D) An intermediary device is either a network node or a host. E) Network nodes include intermediary devices and hosts. * 3. Which topology is used widely when network redundancy is important to prepare for node or link failures? A) point -to-point B) partial mesh * C) star D) bus E) hub-and-spoke 4. When the number of possible voltage states doubles in digital signal encoding, A) two more bits can be additionally sent per clock cycle. B) the effective data rate is increased by 50%. C) the effective data rate is reduced by 50%. D) the number of bits sent per clock cycl e remains the same. E) one more bit can be additionally sent per clock cycle. * 5. Star topology is also known as: A) ring B) partial mesh C) full mesh D) bus E) hub-and-spoke * 6. Which is an access link? A) router – router link B) switch – switch link C) switch – router link D) web server – switch link * E) wireless access point – switch link 7. The Organizationally Unique Identifier (OUI) is an element of _____. A) MAC addresses * B) public addresses C) IP addresses D) global addresses E) local addresses 8. The throughput of a network A) represents the speed guaranteed by a service provider. B) describes the strength of a signal. C) is interchangeably used with the rated speed . D) represents its maximum capacity in theory. E) represents its actual speed. * 9. In the network, data are produced and exchanged according to meticulously defined rules of communication and engagement. These rules are codified in the _________. A) protocol * B) signal C) network link D) message E) intermediary device 10. Choose an INCORRECT statement regarding the network link. A) Copper wires and optical fibers are popular wired media these days. B) Network links are divided into access and trunk links. C) Creating a computer network needs to have at least one trunk link. * D) The access link provides connectivity between a host and an intermediary device. E) The trunk link interconnects intermediary devices. 11. The campus network is a type of the _____. A) local area network * B) metropolitan area network C) personal area network D) wide area network E) wireless network 12. What is the binary combination of hexadecimal digits ‘B301’? A) 1110001100000001 B) 1011001100000001 * C) 1001001100010001 D) 1011001100101001 E) 1011001100100101 13. Select an ACCURATE statement on network addressing. A) MAC addresses of a university’s PCs are the same in their first 6 hexadecimal digits. B) The primary usage of the MAC address is for inter -networking. C) The IPv4 ad dress is longer in length than the MAC address. D) An IP address should be permanently assigned to a host station. E) A host station should have a MAC and an IP address for networking. * 14. Which is TRUE regarding the MAC address? A) It is a permanently printed address . * B) It is stored in a computer’s random access memory (RAM) in 8 hexadecimal digits. C) It is dynamically provided by a designated server to requesting stations. D) It is determined by a computer’s operating system. E) Two computers can own the same MAC address . 15. The fiber optic cable uses _____ signal encoding. A) multiple -level voltage B) two-level voltage C) on and off * D) analog E) electronic 16. Which 3 terms are used interchangeably as metrics of network performance? A) channel capacity, bandwidth, throughput B) channel capacity, throughput, flow C) reliability, accuracy, availability D) channel capacity, bandwidth, rated speed * E) reliability, accu racy, latency 17. When the nearby laptop, wireless mouse and keyboard, smartphone, and digital camera exchange data, a _____ standard can be used: A) WAN (wide area network) B) PAN (personal area network) * C) NFC (near field communication) D) LAN (local area network) E) MAN (metropolitan area network) 18. Which is a legitimate MAC address? A) ab-01-cd-ef-23-45 * B) ab-01-cd-ef-23-4 C) ab-01-cd-ef-23 D) ab-01-cd-ef-2 E) ab-01-cd-ef 19. _______ represents the number of cycles a wave has in every second. A. Amplitude B. Phase C. Frequency * D. Wavelength E. Bandwidth 20. Modulation is used when A) a node produces text data and the delivery channel relies on analog signal encoding. B) a node produces sound data and the delivery channel relies on digital signal encoding. C) a node produces digital data and the delivery channel relies on analog signal encoding. * D) a node produces analog data and the delivery channel relies on digital signal encoding. E) a node produces digital or analog data and the delivery channel reli es on digital signal encoding. 21. Which is an intermediary device designed to facilitate inter -networking? A) switch B) router * C) wireless access point D) bridge E) network printer 22. Which is NOT NECESSARILY an accurate description of the intermediary device? A) It has at least one built -in network card. B) It also becomes a network node. C) It always operates in the full -duplex mode. * D) It relies on network addressing to exchange data. E) It is used for either intra -networking or inter -networking. 23. Which is a right sequence of data rate metrics from the smallest to the largest? A) Kbps - Mbps - Pbps - Gbps - Tbps B) Tbps - Pbps - Kbps - Mbps - Gbps C) Kbps - Gbps - Mbps - Tbps - Pbps D) Kbps - Mbps - Gbps - Tbps - Pbps * E) Kbps - Mbps - Gbps – Pbps - Tbps 24. There are many web sites that offer audio or video streaming of TV programs and movies over the Internet. These services generally rely on the _______ technology. A) unicasting B) anycasting C) multicasting * D) broadcasting E) dualcasting 25. Three main sources of network latency (or delay) include the: A) propagation delay, delay at hosts, and delay in server processing. B) propagation delay, delay at hosts, and delay at intermediary devices. * C) delay at intermediary devices, delay at hosts, and delay in client processin g. D) delay in application processing, propagation delay, and delay at hosts. E) delay in server processing, delay at intermediary devices, and delay at hosts. 26. The primary dimensions of network performance include __________. A) delay, cost, and reliability B) capacity, reliability, and accessibility C) capacity, reliability, and cost D) delay, capacity, and reliability * E) reliability, delay, and accessibility 27. The following message is produced by the web browser according to the ________ . “GET / HTTP/1.1 Host: www.google.com” A) semantic rule B) lexicon rule C) syntactic rule * D) message rule E) link rule 28. Which statement CORRECTLY describes network topology? A) Tree: All network nodes are either a hub or a spoke. B) Bus: All network nodes are directly interconnected. C) Hierarchy: Host stations are linked to a main transmission line. D) Star: All locations connect to a central site and thus the network is susceptible to a single point of failure. * E) Full mesh: It is a cost -effective approach in creating a highly reliable network with redundancies. 29. Which represent key properties of the analog wave? A) bandwidth, amplitude, frequency B) frequency, wavelength, bandwidth C) wavelength, frequency, amplitude * D) attenuation, amplitude, wavelength E) attenuation, amplitude, frequency 30. If the lowest and the highest frequencies allowed by a transmission channel are 30 Mhz and 50 Mhz respectively, its bandwidth is: A) 30 Mhz B) 20 Mhz * C) 50 Mhz D) 80 Mhz E) 1500 Mhz TEXTBOOK HANDS -ON EXERCISES Exercise 1.1 1. Easier to maintain security protection of resources such as data: Protection efforts are focused on servers and this makes the protection task more effective than when resources are scattered. Also, server operating systems allow flexible configuration of accessibility such as access rights and privileges of files and directories. 2. Improved accessibility to server resources: Generally, servers are high -speed computers (or a cluster of computers) with high -speed network connections and, therefore, generally respond to client requests faster. 3. Easier to back up server resources: Again, with the centralization of managed resources, backing up them becomes easier. 4. More cost effective in maintaining and upgrading server programs (or applicatio ns): It is no brainer that the maintenance and upgrade of a few systems is less hassle than that of many distributed systems. 5. Easier to add more resources to a server (called server scalability) to meet growing demands: The centralized resource management naturally makes it easy in scaling system resources as they can be added as needed. Popular examples of such centralized resource management are server virtualization, server clustering and the data center. Exercise 1.2 1. LAN1: 4, LAN2:2, LAN3:4 2. LAN1: 3, LAN2:2, LAN3:3 3. LAN1: 4 access links, 2 trunk links LAN2: 2 access links, 1 trunk links LAN3: 4 access links, 2 trunk link 4. 18 5. LAN1: switch and hub, LAN2: switches, LAN3: switch 6. Router 7. LAN1: 1, LAN2: 1, LAN3: 2 8. No. It is intra -networking 9. Yes. 10. No. It is intra -networking 11. Yes. Exercise 1.3 1. one LAN 2. three 3. No, It takes intra -networking. 4. Yes 5. Switch Exercise 1. 4: 15*1000/16=937.5 calls Exercise 1. 5 1. 38 – 00100110 110 - 01101110 192- 11000000 255 - 11111111 2. 01100001 – 97 11110110 - 246 11100011 – 227 10100010 - 162 Exercise 1. 6 1. 0001.0111.1010.1011 2. 0xABCDEF – 1010.1011.1100.1101.1110.1111 0x34A57 – 0011.0100.1010.0101.0111 0x12DF01 - 0001.0010.1101.1111.0000.0001 0x78ADC – 0111.1000.1010.1101.1100 3. 0xB68E1. 4. 0x2678AB5C488D Exercise 1. 7 Cisco: 00000C and 000142 among others Apple: 000046 and 000393 among others Intel: 00012A and 0002B3 among others Microsoft: 0003FF and 000D3A among others 3Com: 000103 and 00029C among others Exercise 1. 8 Answers vary. Exercise 1.9 Refer to Figure 1.24. If a signal state of a certain voltage strength is designed to carry 3 bits, how many different voltage states should be in the signaling system? How about 4 bits or 5 bits? Ans: 8 states for 3 bits (2^3), 16 states for 4 bits (2^4), 32 states for 5 bit s (2^5) ADDITIONAL TEST BANK QUESTIONS Switches within a network are interconnected by ___. A) access links B) peer-to-peer links C) trunk links * D) channel links E) internet links What connects a host to a nearly located switch? A) trunk link B) access link * C) backbone link D) distribution link E) circuit link The campus network (e.g., SDSU network) is an example of _______: A) WAN (wide area network) B) PAN (personal area network) C) NFC (near field communication) D) LAN (local area network) * E) MAN (metropolitan area netw ork) Which may NOT be considered a key element of a computer network ? A) hosts B) messages C) networking (intermediary) devices D) applications E) people * Which is NOT considered a n intermediary device? A) switch B) router C) wireless access point D) bridge E) network printer * Which is a performance measure of network capacity/speed? A) MB (megabyte) B) Mbps (megabits per second) * C) Milliseconds D) MBPS (megabytes per second) E) Microseconds What represents actual data rate of a network? A) channel capacity B) rated speed C) bandwidth D) throughput * E) capacity I recently purchased a WiFi access router that says 200 Mbps fast! I was super excited as I was going to watch all the Netflix movies on my smartphone. When the device was installed at home, however, it only gives my smart phone 34Mbps ________!! I am disappointed . A) channel capacity B) rated speed C) bandwidth D) throughput * E) capacity Which is an inter-networking device? A) switch B) router * C) wireless access point D) bridge E) network printer Below are intermediary devices EXCEPT _________: A) routers B) switches C) bridges D) wireless access points E) servers * If I want to know the MAC and IP addresses of my Windows computer, I can use the _____ command at the command prompt (e.g., C:/ ) . A) ipconfig /all * B) traceroute C) netstat -n -a D) ping E) telnet or SSH The enterpri se network (or corporate network) of a firm can be composed of one or more: A) LAN(s) B) LAN(s) + WAN(s) C) LAN(s) + MAN(s) + WAN(s) D) LAN(s) + MAN(s) E) All of the above * Choose an ACCURATE statement regarding the MAC address. A) A host station does not need a MAC address for networking. B) A host station needs only a MAC address to exchange data over the network. C) It is generally presented to people in its decimal format. D) It is generally 32 bit -long. E) It is printed on the network interface card (NIC) . * Which WAN topo logy may NOT be a cost -effective choice when there are many offices geographically distributed? A) hub -and-spoke B) full mesh * C) hierarchical D) partial mesh E) star The MAC address of a NIC should be set ___. A) by the manufacturer * B) by the network admi nistrator C) by the DHCP server D) when the computer restarts E) by the operating system Which is a CORRECT statement on network addressing? A) A node only needs an IP address for networking. B) The IP address is also called as hardware address. C) The MAC address consists of 12 hexadecimal characte rs (48 bits) . * D) The MAC address of a device can be permanently changed. E) OUI (organizational unique identifier) is an element of the IP address. What are three largest sources of delay (latency) in messa ge transmission s? A) propagation delay, delay at hosts, delay at intermediary devices * B) delay at hosts, delay at intermediary devices, delay due to packet collisions C) delay of user response, delay at intermediary devices, propagation delay D) delay of user respon se, delay at intermediary devices, delay due to packet collisions E) propagation delay, delay at hosts, delay due to packet collisions The star topology is also called the __________ topology. A) ring B) tree C) hub-and-spoke * D) tree E) mesh Which may NOT be an advantage of client/server over peer -to-peer? A) Easier protection of computing resources B) Faster access to available resources C) Easier to back up server data and files D) Easier to maintain and upgrade servers E) Easier initial setup * Imagine that, after processing human input, the browser’s HTTP protocol produces “GET / HTTP/1.1 Host: www.savetrees.org”. Then, according to the _______ , the message means ‘Please send me the main page of www.savetrees.org using the HTTP protocol, versio n 1.1 .’ A) semantic rule * B) lexicon rule C) syntactic rule D) message rule E) link rule What is the topology used to create the following WAN connections among distributed branch locations of a company? R2R3 R4 R5 R1 A) star B) partial mesh * C) tree D) bus E) ring What is the topology used to create the WAN connections? R4 R2R3 R5 R1 A) star * B) partial mesh C) tree D) bus E) ring Network nodes include ______. A) intra-networking and inter -networking devices B) intermediary devices and hosts * C) intermediary devices and network links D) intermediary devices and networking devices E) end devices and network links Choose a CORRECT statement on network addressing. A) The network interface card of a computer has at least one IP address printed on it. B) The MAC address is stored in a computer’s hard drive. C) A permanent IP address is dynamically allocated to a host station whenever it submits a request. D) The MAC address does not have to be bound to a node physically. E) To access LAN , a host station needs a pair of MAC and IP addresses. * The QoS (Quality of Service) concept represents the capability of a network to offer guaranteed performance . Then which may be the LEAST relevant measure of QoS? A) link capacity /speed B) latency /delay C) reliability D) availability /unavailability E) network topology * Which CORRECTLY represents the degree of link redundancy from low to high? A) hub and spoke – full mesh – partial mesh B) hub and spoke – partial mesh – full mesh* C) partial mesh – full mesh – hub and spoke D) full mesh – partial mesh – hub and spoke E) partial mesh – hub and spoke – full mesh What is a metric of signal frequencies? A) nanometers B) decibel C) voltage D) hertz * E) bandwidth Which is NOT an attribute unique to analog signals? A) Wavelength B) Frequency C) Phase D) Amplitude E) Clock cycle * The following figure shows the process of _______ in data transmissions? A) multiplexing B) modulation * C) broadband D) synchronous transmission E) asynchronous transmission 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 Time dimension Source data Signaling The following figure shows the process of _______ in data transmissions? A) time division multiplexing B) frequency division multi plexing C) amplitude modulation * D) frequency modulation E) statistical time division multiplexing 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 Time dimension Source data Signaling Which two metrics of analog signals should be inversely associated? A) Wavelength and amplitude B) Wavelength and frequency * C) Wavelength and phase D) Frequency and phase E) Frequency and amplitude Modulation is technology to convert _______. A) digital bit stream to a digital signal B) analog data to an analog signal C) analog data to a digital signal D) analog data to ether an analog or a digital signal E) digital bit stream to an analog signal * What should happen when the number of signal states increases in digital signal encoding ? A) Transmission speed generally increases. * B) Error resistance generally increases. C) Effective transmission distance generally increases. D) Signal delay generally increases. E) Signal interference decreases. Keys are marked with an “*”. CHAPTER 1 TEXTBOOK CHAPTER REVIEW QUESTIONS 1. The first step of the cyber kill chain , ________, is performed by the attacker to conduct a chain of activities subsequently? A) weaponization B) exploitation C) actions on objectives D) reconnaissance* E) drive by download 2. Phishing is a type of the ________ attack. A) social engineering* B) spam C) access control bypass D) fingerprinting E) weaponization 3. An organization that purchased different security products from different vendors is exercising which security principle? A) obscurity principle B) limiting principle C) layering principle D) complexity principle E) diversity principle * 4. A malicious hacker is attempting to steal sensitive financial information from a company. For this, he chose the CEO of the company as a specific attack target as she has complete access to sensitive data. Then the attacker tricks the CEO into revealing corp orate data by engineering an elaborate website spoofing. This is an __________ attack. A) impersonation B) whaling * C) vishing D) shoulder phishing E) insider 5. One of key principles of defense against attacks is to keep simplicity so that a security system should be e asy to understand and use, and does not disrupt routines. Then, which of these may NOT facilitate simplicity in defense? A) Use a password manager to protect many passwords of an individual. B) Use automatic full disk encryption to protect data without sacrifici ng productivity. C) Use automatic data backups. D) Use passphrases that are more secure and easier to remember than typical passwords. E) Depend on the secrecy of system components as much as possible* 6. The following represent available options an organization can take in dealing with security risks EXCEPT: A) Avoidance to fundamentally eliminate the creation of risks B) Acceptance to accept risks as a part of life C) Mitigation that take measures to reduce risks D) Deterrence that discourages threat attempts or attacks E) Isolation by transferring risks to other organizations * 7. Which is CORRECTLY paired in managing the cybersecurity risk? A) Risk avoidance: All computer systems of an organization display a banner that warns legal consequences if any illegal activities are committed. B) Risk mitigation: An organization decides to buy an insurance in preparing for cyber incidents. C) Risk deterrence: An organization decides the maximum level of risk it is willing to accept and allocates budget. D) Risk acceptance: A small busines s decides not to invest in security products or services to protect its assets. * E) Risk transference: An organization decided not to have any website or internet connections. 8. What happens at the weaponization stage of the cyber kill chain? A) An exploit is tr ansmitted to the target system. B) The attacker creates an exploit and packages it into a deliverable payload * C) An exploit is installed on the victim computer to create a remote backdoor . D) The victim system connects back to the attacker so that it can be remo tely controlled. E) The attacker probes for any information about the target system. 9. Behavioral biometrics such as keystroke dynamics are the ______ type of authentication? A) What you have B) What you are C) What you know D) Where you are E) What you do * 10. Which is CORRECT in pairing an authentication method and its example? A) What you have – security token* B) What you are -- keyboarding C) What you know – fingerprint D) Where you are – behavioral attributes E) When you do -- restricted in military base 11. The following figure mus t demonstrate the ________ principle in security. A) limiting * B) simplicity C) layering D) defense -in-depth E) diversity 12. The cyber risk an organization should bear is a function of: A) authentication, authorization, and accounting B) confidentiality, integrity, and availability C) threat likelihood (or threats), vulnerabilities, and assets* D) humans, products, and policies & procedures E) humans, vulnerabilities, and policies & procedures 13. Which of the following threat actors are more likely to carry out advanced persistent threats? A) insiders B) state-sponsored attackers* C) cybercriminals D) script kiddies E) hactivists 14. Improving host security through anti -virus software and the host firewall results in _____. A) host firewalling B) host self -defense C) host hardening * D) host patching E) host demilitarizion 15. Which of the following technologies is NOT used for authentication? A) password and passphrase B) digital signature and digital certificate C) biometric solution D) security token E) access control list* 16. Maintaining a reliable backup system of co rporate database satisfies what aspect of security requirements? A) confidentiality B) integrity C) authentication D) authorization E) availability* 17. The defense -in-depth principle includes measures of the following security layers EXCEPT? A) application security layer B) intermediary device security layer * C) host security layer D) internal network security layer E) perimeter security layer 18. The following initiatives cut across all security layers in realizing defense -in-depth EXCEPT: A) plan to harden intermediary devices * B) regulatory compliance self -assessment C) security policies & procedures D) security awareness & training E) disaster recovery plan 19. Which should b e the least exploited threat/attack vector? A) technology/system users B) the network C) security policies and procedures* D) web applications E) mobile devices 20. What is generally the most important asset to be protected at an organization? A) software/applications B) hosts (both clients and servers) C) the network D) data/information * E) intermediary devices 21. Which of the following is a true statement? A) Only the surface web uses web standard technologies including HTTP and HTML. B) The sites in the dark web can be accessed with a regular browser. C) The deep web and the dark web spaces do not overlap. D) The surface web space is larger than the deep web space. E) The regular search engine indexes surface websites, but not the sites in the deep web.* 22. The following l ists phishing attacks EXCEPT ____. A) Watering hole B) hoax C) whaling D) poisoning* E) vishing 23. Imagine that the IT manager of a business organization decided to configure all enterprise servers with one complex password for authentication. This is a violation of the _____ security principle. A) obscurity B) diversity* C) simplicity D) limiting E) defense -in-depth 24. An organization evaluates its current status in terms of its preparedness to defend its core information assets from threats and subsequently plans for improvements. This describes: A) Security policies & procedures B) Security awareness & training C) Information security self -assessment* D) Regulatory complian ce self -assessment E) Disaster recovery 25. All network nodes (e.g., computers, intermediary devices, security devices) should record logs for subsequent analysis and auditing of resource utilization and security controls. This describes the _____ requirement in information security. A) accounting* B) authentication C) data Integrity D) data availability E) access control TEXTBOOK HANDS -ON EXERCISES Exercise 2.1 : Answers vary. Exercise 2.2 : Answers vary. Exercise 2.4 : • Blacklisting: The email system filter s any incoming email that matches an email address in the blacklist . • Whitelisting: The email system only accepts emails listed in the allowed list and all the others are rejected. • “Greylisting will "temporarily reject" any email from a sender it does not recognize. If the mail is legitimate, the originating server will try again after a delay, and if sufficient time has elapsed, the email will be accepted (source: Wikipedia) ” Exercise 2.5 : Answers vary. ADDITIONAL TEST BANK QUESTIONS The following technology solution represents an example of the ‘simplicity’ principle EXCEPT: A) Relying on a single sign -on based password manager B) Enabling automatic full disk encryption to protect data with no productivity sacrifice C) Automated data and file backups D) Deploying all VPN connections in the transport mode* E) Using passphrases rather than passwords The following figure demonstrates the ________ principle in security. A) Limiting * B) Simplicity C) Layering D) Defense -in-depth E) Hiding Which CORRECTLY pairs a security layer and an available technology in realizing the defense - in-depth principle? A) Data security -- Access Control List (ACL) on border routers B) Application security -- Hardening intermediary devices C) Host security -- Anti-virus protection * D) Internal network security -- Corporate -wide data encryption E) Perimeter security -- Network segmentation (e.g., subnets, VLANs) Which is NOT a primary security requirement? A) confidentiality (privacy) B) data integrity C) authentication D) access control E) spoofing detection * _____ is a process that validates “you are the person/system you claim to be.” A) Address filtering B) Challenging C) Certification D) Authentication* E) Authorization In realizing the defense -in-depth principle, the perimeter security technologies of a business organization include the following EXCEPT: A) Border firewalls B) Corporate file access control * C) Access Control List (ACL) on border routers D) Demilitarized zone (DMZ) E) Proxy servers The defense -in-depth principle may include security measures of the following layers. Which layer is LEAST relevant? A) Application security B) External network security * C) Host security D) Internal network security E) Perimeter security The following elements/activities cut across all security layers in realizing defense -in-depth EXCEPT: A) Corporate -wide data encryption * B) Regulatory compliance self -assessment C) Security policies & procedures D) Security awareness & training E) Information security self -assessment Maintaining a reliable backup system of corporate database satisfies what aspect of security requirements? A) Confidentiality B) Data integrity C) Authentication D) Authorization E) Availability* Which of the following is NOT a technology solution intended for authentication? A) Password and passphrase B) Access control list (ACL) * C) Digital signature and digital certificate D) Biometric solutions (e.g., fingerprints). E) Security token Maintaining data privacy achieves the _________ aspect of security requirement. A) confidentiality* B) integrity C) authentication D) access control E) reliability The following figure is an example of ___________ attack. A) social engineering * B) denial of service C) malware D) fingerprinting E) man-in-the-middle Below email is an example of _________: A) sniffing B) spoofing C) monitoring D) phishing* E) scanning Keys are marked with an “*”. CHAPTER 3 TEXTBOOK CHAPTER REVIEW QUESTIONS 1. The standard ______ broadly depicts necessary functions of computer networking in terms of a layer structure. A) topology B) architecture * C) platform D) reference E) protocol 2. All layers of a standard architecture have thei r own protocol data unit (PDU) except the ______ layer. A) application B) transport C) internet D) data link E) physical * 3. An email message goes through encapsulations in the sequence of ________ before it is released to the n etwork. A) segment –packet –frame * B) segment -frame -packet C) frame -segment -packet D) packet -segment -packet E) packet -frame -segment 4. Which two layer functions are generally built into an operating system such as Windows and Linux? A) physical and transport layers B) transport and internet layers * C) internet and data link layers D) physical and internet layers E) transport and data link layers 5. The socket is/represents: A) a group of applications providing similar services. B) used to indicate a range of available ports on a server. C) the combination of an IP address and a port number. * D) the combination of an IP address and a n application -layer protocol . E) the combi nation of an IP address and a session identification. 6. Which statement is true? A) IP is a connection -oriented protocol. B) UDP is a reliable protocol. C) IP is a reliable protocol. D) TCP is a reliable protocol. * E) TCP is a connection -less protocol. 7. The TCP port is used to: A) prioritize a service request. B) forward a service request/response to a specific application. * C) identify a sender’s IP address. D) translate a domain name into an IP address. E) identify a sender’s MAC address. 8. The ____ bit in the TCP header is u sed to request handshaking. A) FIN B) ACK C) SYN * D) CON E) SEQ 9. Which is NOT accurate in terms of layer functions? A) application layer - to establish sessions (or handshaking) * B) transport layer - to provide message (or data) integrity C) internet layer - to execute packet routing D) data link layer - to conduct frame switching E) physical layer - for the actual transportation of frames in signals 10. Which layer function(s) is/are implemented in the network interface card? A) physical layer only B) data link layer only C) physical layer and data link layer * D) physical layer, data link layer, and internet layer E) physical layer, data link layer, internet layer, and transport layer 11. ______ most likely depend(s) on UDP in the transport layer . A) E-mails B) Internet surfing with a web browser C) Online credit card authorization for Internet shopping D) File transfer using FTP (File Transfer Protocol) E) Three -way video conferencing over the Internet * 12. Port numbers have to be included in the header of _______. A) packets only B) datagrams only C) segments only D) segments and datagrams * E) packets, segments, and datagrams 13. TCP and UDP are compared. Which is CORRECT? Protocol TCP UDP A) Defined layer transport internet B) Require handshaking Yes Yes C) Require acknowledgement Yes Yes D) Burden on communicating hosts Low Low E) Burden on the network * High Low 14. The TTL (time to live) value in the IP packet’s header indicates a maximum number of ________ a packet can go through before reaching the destination: A) switches B) routers * C) hosts D) networks E) circuits 15. Assume that an email should cross three subnetworks for its delivery to a destination host. How many different frames are produced along the way? A) 4 B) 3 * C) 2 D) 1 E) not enough information to decide 16. Choose a CORRECT statement. A) A standard protocol should define either semantics or syntax, but not both. B) The term ‘standard’ is used interchangeably with ‘architecture’. C) The semantics of a protocol is about how to interpret PDUs exchanged. * D) A reliable protocol detects transmission errors but does not co rrect them. E) All standard protocols of the application layer are reliable protocols. 17. Assume that an email should cross three subnetworks for its delivery to a destination host. How many different packets are produced along the way? A) 0 B) 1 * C) 2 D) 3 E) 4 18. The IP packet is encapsulated within the _____ to travel to the destination node. A) application message B) TCP segment