(Test Bank) Nclex Misc-Question Bank -With Verified Answers 2022

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1 NCLEX MISC-question bank -with verified answers 2022 disk? 1.Pain radiating down the posterior thigh 2.Back pain when the knees are flexed 3.Atrophy of the lower leg muscles 4.Homans' sign Correct Answer: 1 Your Answer: 1 RATIONALES: A herniated intervertebral disk may compress the spinal nerve roots, causing sciatic nerve inflammation that results in pain radiating down the leg. Slight knee flexion should relieve, not precipitate, low back pain. If nerve root compression remains untreated, weakness or paralysis of the innervated muscle group may result; lower leg atrophy may occur if muscles aren't used. Homans' sign is more typical of phlebothrombosis. The nurse is teaching a client with osteomalacia how to take prescribed vitamin D supplements. The nurse stresses the importance of taking only the prescribed amount because high doses of vitamin D can be toxic. Early signs and symptoms of vitamin D toxicity include: 1.GI upset and metallic taste. 2.dry skin, hair loss, and inflamed mucous membranes. 3.flushing and orthostatic hypotension. 4.sensory neuropathy and difficulty maintaining balance. Correct Answer: 1 Your Answer: 1 RATIONALES: GI upset and metallic taste are early signs and symptoms of vitamin D toxicity. Such toxicity also may cause headache, weakness, renal insufficiency, renal calculi, hypertension, arrhythmias, muscle pain, and conjunctivitis. Dry skin, hair loss, and inflamed mucous membranes suggest vitamin A toxicity. Flushing and orthostatic hypotension (effects of vasodilation) may result from nicotinic acid and nicotinamide supplements, used to correct niacin deficiency. Sensory neuropathy and difficulty maintaining balance suggest pyridoxine toxicity. A client with osteoarthritis tells the nurse she is concerned that the disease will prevent her from doing her chores. Which suggestion should the nurse offer? 1."Do all your chores in the morning, when pain and stiffness are least pronounced." 2."Do all your chores after performing morning exercises to loosen up." 3."Pace yourself and rest frequently, especially after activities." 4."Do all your chores in the evening, when pain and stiffness are least pronounced." Correct Answer: 3 Your Answer: 3 RATIONALES: A client with osteoarthritis must adapt to this chronic and disabling disease, which causes deterioration of the joint cartilage. The most common symptom of the disease is deep, aching joint pain, particularly in the morning and after exercise and weight-bearing activities. Because rest usually relieves the pain, the nurse should instruct the client to rest frequently, especially after activities, and to pace herself during daily activities. Option 1 is incorrect because the pain and stiffness of osteoarthritis are most pronounced in the morning. Options 2 and 4 are incorrect because the client should pace herself and take frequent rests rather than doing all chores at once. 2 3 A common bone disease that usually affects middle-aged and elderly people. It's marked by inflammation of the bones, softening and thickening of the bones, excessive bone destruction, and unorganized bone repair; the result is bowing of the long bones. The cause is unknown. urology. What would the nurse suspect is the most likely cause of the client's urination problem? 1.Renal calculi 2.Urinary tract infection 3.Benign prostatic hyperplasia 4.Dehydration Correct Answer: 1 RATIONALES: Renal calculi commonly occur with Paget's disease, causing pain and difficulty when urinating. A urinary tract infection (UTI) commonly causes fever, urgency, burning, and hesitation with urination. Benign prostatic hyperplasia is common in men older than age 50; however, because the client has Paget's disease, the nurse should suspect renal calculi, not benign prostatic hyperplasia. Dehydration causes a decrease in urine production, not a problem with urination. A client has acute, painful muscle spasms. The physician prescribes chlorzoxazone (Paraflex), 500 mg P.O. t.i.d. A centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxant, chlorzoxazone commonly is used to treat: 1.muscle spasm caused by cerebral palsy. 2.chronic musculoskeletal disorder. 3.lower extremity spasticity. 4.severe muscle spasm. Correct Answer: 4 Your Answer: 4 RATIONALES: Chlorzoxazone is used to treat acute, painful musculoskeletal conditions or severe muscle spasm. Centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxants like chlorzoxazone are ineffective in treating spasticity associated with chronic neurologic disease, such as cerebral palsy. They can treat acute musculoskeletal disorders, not chronic ones. Chlorzoxazone and the other relaxants are used to treat spasticity of any extremity. A client who has just been diagnosed with mixed muscular dystrophy asks the nurse about the usual course of this disease. How should the nurse respond? 1."You should ask your physician about that." 2."The strength of your arms and pelvic muscles will decrease gradually, but this should cause only slight disability." 3."You may experience progressive deterioration in all voluntary muscles." 4."This form of muscular dystrophy is a relatively benign disease that progresses slowly." Correct Answer: 3 Your Answer: 3 RATIONALES: Muscular dystrophy causes progressive, symmetrical wasting of skeletal muscles, without neural or sensory defects. The mixed form of the disease typically strikes between ages 30 and 50 and progresses rapidly, causing deterioration of all voluntary muscles. Because the client asked the nurse this question directly, the nurse should answer and not simply refer the client to the physician. Limb-girdle muscular dystrophy causes a gradual decrease in arm and pelvic muscle strength, resulting in slight disability. Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy is a slowly 4 progressive, relatively benign form of muscular dystrophy; it usually arises before age 10. A group of degenerative genetic diseases characterized by weakness and the progressive atrophy of skeletal muscles with no evidence of nervous system involvement. The nurse is caring for a client who complains of lower back pain. Which instructions should the nurse give to the client to prevent back injury? 1."Bend over the object you're lifting." 2."Narrow the stance when lifting." 3."Push or pull an object using your arms." 4."Stand close to the object you're lifting." Correct Answer: 4 Your Answer: 4 RATIONALES: Standing close to an object when lifting moves the body's center of gravity closer to the object, allowing the legs, rather than the back, to bear the weight. No one should bend over an object when lifting; instead, the back should be straight, and bending should be at the hips and knees. When lifting, spreading the legs apart widens the base of support and lowers the center of gravity, providing better balance. Pushing or pulling an object using the weight of the body, rather than the arms or back, prevents back strain. Using a larger number of muscle groups distributes the workload. A client is diagnosed with osteoporosis. Which statements should the nurse include when teaching the client about the disease? 1."It's common in females after menopause." 2."It's a degenerative disease characterized by a decrease in bone density." 3."It's a congenital disease caused by poor dietary intake of milk products." 4."It can cause pain and injury." 5."Passive range-of-motion exercises can promote bone growth." 6."Weight-bearing exercise should be avoided." Correct Answer: 1,2,4 Your Answer: 1,2,4 RATIONALES: Osteoporosis is a degenerative metabolic bone disorder in which the rate of bone resorption accelerates and the rate of bone formation decelerates, thus decreasing bone density. Postmenopausal women are at increased risk for this disorder because of the loss of estrogen. The decrease in bone density can cause pain and injury. Osteoporosis isn't a congenital disorder; however, low calcium intake does contribute to the disorder. Passive range-of-motion exercises may be performed but they won't promote bone growth. The client should be encouraged to participate in weight-bearing exercise because it promotes bone growth. The nurse is caring for a client with burns on his legs. Which nursing intervention will help to prevent contractures? 1.Applying knee splints 2.Elevating the foot of the bed 3.Hyperextending the client's legs 5 4. Performing shoulder range-of-motion (ROM) exercises Correct Answer: 1 Your Answer: 1 RATIONALES: Applying knee splints prevents leg contractures by holding the joints in a functional position. Elevating the foot of the bed doesn't prevent contractures. Hyperextending a body part for any length of time is inappropriate; it can cause contractures. Performing shoulder ROM exercises can prevent contractures in the shoulders but not in the legs. Following a boating accident, a 30-year- old client with multiple fractures is admitted to a semiprivate room in a progressive care unit. The client, who was driving the boat, is unaware that his girlfriend's 9-year-old son was killed in the accident. The client's parents instruct the nurse to prohibit phone calls and to withhold information about the accident. During an assessment of the client, the nurse notices that the television is on and the news is starting. It would be most appropriate for the nurse to: 1.turn the television off and tell the client it interferes with the assessment. 2.allow the client to view the television and deal with any questions as they come. 3.instruct the client to change the channel to a station that isn't televising the news. 4.attempt to distract the client from watching the television. Correct Answer: 2 Your Answer: 1 RATIONALES: The nurse-client relationship is built on trust, so the nurse can't withhold information from her client. She may refer the client to another source for the information, but she can't prohibit the client from seeking information. It would be most appropriate to deal with the client's questions as they come. Turning the television off, changing the channel, and distracting the client are all deceitful practices, which can damage a therapeutic nurse-client relationship. A client is diagnosed with gout. Which foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid? 1.Green, leafy vegetables 2.Liver 3.Cod 4.Chocolate 5.Sardines 6.Eggs Correct Answer: 2,3,5 Your Answer: 2,3,5 RATIONALES: Clients with gout should avoid foods that are high in purines, such as liver, cod, and sardines. They should also avoid anchovies, kidneys, sweetbreads, lentils, and alcoholic beverages especially beer and wine. Green, leafy vegetables; chocolate; and eggs aren't high in purines. 6 The clinical nurse specialist developed clinical pathways for common orthopedic conditions. The interdisciplinary team uses these pathways to: 1.provide a care plan for caregivers to ensure continuity of care. 2.provide a step-by-step care plan. 3.accurately bill the client for services provided. 4.describe the pathophysiology of the diagnosis. Correct Answer: 1 Your Answer: 2 RATIONALES: The pathway provides a care plan that ensures continuity of care for clients with like diagnoses. Each clinical pathway is then modified to meet individual client needs. Clinical pathways don't provide a step-by-step care plan, help bill the client, or describe the pathophysiology of the diagnosis. Which nursing diagnosis is a priority for the client with a traumatically amputated lower extremity? 1.Impaired skin integrity related to effects of the injury 2.Anticipatory grieving related to the loss of a limb 3.Disturbed body image related to changes in the structure of a body part 4.Risk for injury related to injury and amputation Correct Answer: 4 Your Answer: 3 RATIONALES: The priority diagnosis is Risk for injury related to amputation. Patient safety takes priority. Amputation typically causes an unsteady gait until the client receives physical therapy and learns to ambulate safely. All the nursing diagnoses listed are appropriate for a client presenting with a traumatic amputation of an extremity. To assess the joints, the nurse asks a client to perform various movements. As the client moves the arm away from the midline, the nurse evaluates the ability to perform: 1.protraction. 2.retraction. 3.adduction. 4.abduction. Correct Answer: 4 Your Answer: 4 RATIONALES: A client performs abduction when moving a body part away from the midline. Protraction refers to drawing out or lengthening of a body part. Retraction, the opposite of protraction, refers to drawing back or shortening of a body part. Adduction, the opposite of abduction, is movement of a body part toward the midline. 7 The nurse is teaching a female client about preventing osteoporosis. Which teaching point is correct? 1.Obtaining an X-ray of the bones every 3 years is recommended to detect bone loss. 2.To avoid fractures, the client should avoid strenuous exercise. 3.The recommended daily allowance of calcium may be found in a wide variety of foods. 4.Obtaining the recommended daily allowance of calcium requires taking a calcium supplement. Correct Answer: 3 Your Answer: 3 RATIONALES: Premenopausal women require 1,000 mg of calcium per day. Postmenopausal women require 1,500 mg per day. It's often, though not always, possible to get the recommended daily requirement in the foods we eat. Supplements are available but not always necessary. Osteoporosis doesn't show up on ordinary X-rays until 30% of the bone loss has occurred. Bone densitometry can detect bone loss of 3% or less. This test is sometimes recommended routinely for women over 35 who are at risk. Strenuous exercise won't cause fractures. A client who recently had a stroke requires a cane to ambulate. When teaching about cane use, explain that the reason for holding a cane on the uninvolved side is to: 1.prevent leaning. 2.distribute weight away from the involved side. 3.maintain stride length. 4.prevent edema. Correct Answer: 2 Your Answer: 1 RATIONALES: Holding a cane on the uninvolved side distributes weight away from the involved side. Holding the cane close to the body prevents leaning. Use of a cane won't maintain stride length or prevent edema. A client is preparing for discharge from the emergency department after sustaining an ankle sprain. The client is instructed to avoid weight bearing on the affected leg and is given crutches. After instruction, the client demonstrates proper crutch use in the hallway. What additional information is most important to know before discharging the client? 1.Whether the client needs to navigate stairs routinely at home 2.Whether pets are present in the home 3.Whether the client parks his car on the street 4.Whether the client drives a car with a stick shift Correct Answer: 1 Your Answer: 1 RATIONALES: Knowing whether the client must routinely navigate steps at home is most important. If the client must navigate steps, special crutch- walking techniques must be taught to safely navigate the stairs. Options 2, 3, and 4 can pose problems for the client; however, they aren't important to know before discharging the client with crutches. 8 surgery. The green rectangle shows the correct answer. RATIONALES: In laminectomy, one or more of the bony laminae that cover the vertebrae are removed. There are five lumbar vertebrae and they are numbered from top to bottom. L5 is the closest to the sacrum. Count up from the sacrum to locate L1 and L2. The nurse should monitor the client with a pelvic fracture receiving an opium derivative, such as morphine, for what common adverse reaction? 1.Respiratory depression 2.Diarrhea 3.High fever 4.Pupil dilation Correct Answer: 1 Your Answer: 1 RATIONALES: One of the most common adverse reactions to opium derivatives is decreased rate and depth of respiration, which worsens as the dosage is increased. This may cause periodic, irregular breathing or precipitate asthmatic attacks in susceptible clients. Opium derivatives also can cause constipation and pupil constriction. A high fever isn't an adverse reaction associated with opium derivatives. 9 The nurse is teaching a client with a left fractured tibia how to walk with crutches. Which instruction is appropriate? 1."Use the axillae to help carry the weight." 2."All weight should be on the hands." 3."Keep feet 12″ (30 cm) apart to provide stability and a wide base of support." 4."Take long strides to maintain maximum mobility." Correct Answer: 2 Your Answer: 3 RATIONALES: When using crutches, all weight should be on the hands. Constant pressure on the axillae from weight bearing can damage the brachial plexus nerve and produce crutch paralysis. Feet should be 6″ to 8″ (15 to 20 cm) apart to provide stability and support. Short strides not long ones provide safety and maximum mobility. A 17-year-old client with a history of muscular dystrophy is admitted with aspiration pneumonia . The nurse asks the parents if the client has an advance directive. Which response by the parents leads the nurse to believe that the parents don't understand the severity of the client's medical condition? 1."He has pneumonia; I shouldn't have let him go to that party last week." 2."This is the third time he's had pneumonia in the past 6 months. I'm afraid he needs a feeding tube." 3."Yes, he has an advance directive." 4."He is only 17. He doesn't need an advance directive." Correct Answer: 4 Your Answer: 4 RATIONALES: Option 4 suggests that the parents don't fully understand the seriousness of their son's medical condition. Advance directives can be used for any client who has an irreversible condition. Option 1 shows a lack of knowledge about acquiring aspiration pneumonia. Options 2 and 3 show an understanding of their son's condition. For a client with osteoporosis, the nurse should provide which dietary instruction? 1."Decrease your intake of red meat." 2."Decrease your intake of popcorn, nuts, and seeds." 3."Eat more fruits to increase your potassium intake." 4."Eat more dairy products to increase your calcium intake." Correct Answer: 4 Your Answer: 4 RATIONALES: Osteoporosis causes a severe, general reduction in skeletal bone mass. To offset this reduction, the nurse should advise the client to increase calcium intake by consuming more dairy products, which provide about 75% of the calcium in the average diet. None of the other options would stop osteoporosis from worsening. 10 Inflammation of bone that results from a local or general infection of bone and bone marrow. The bacterial infection is caused by trauma or surgery, by direct extension from a nearby infection, or by introduction from the bloodstream. anticipate which measure? 1.Administering large doses of oral antibiotics as prescribed 2.Instructing the client to ambulate twice daily 3.Withholding all oral intake 4.Administering large doses of I.V. antibiotics as prescribed Correct Answer: 4 Your Answer: 4 RATIONALES: Treatment of acute osteomyelitis includes large doses of I.V. antibiotics (after blood cultures identify the infecting organism). Surgical drainage may be indicated, and the affected bone is immobilized. The client usually requires I.V. fluids to maintain hydration, but oral intake isn't necessarily prohibited. A client with arterial insufficiency undergoes below-knee amputation of the right leg. Which action should the nurse include in the postoperative care plan? 1.Elevating the stump for the first 24 hours 2.Maintaining the client on complete bed rest 3.Applying heat to the stump as the client desires 4.Removing the pressure dressing after the first 8 hours Correct Answer: 1 Your Answer: 2 RATIONALES: Stump elevation for the first 24 hours after surgery helps reduce edema and pain by increasing venous return and decreasing venous pooling at the distal portion of the extremity. Bed rest isn't indicated and could predispose the client to complications of immobility. Heat application would be inappropriate because it promotes vasodilation, which may cause hemorrhage and increase pain. The initial pressure dressing usually remains in place for 48 to 72 hours after surgery. A client with muscle weakness and an abnormal gait is being evaluated for muscular dystrophy. Which test or finding confirms muscular dystrophy? 1.Electromyography 2.Muscle biopsy 3.Family history of muscular dystrophy 4.Gram stain of muscle tissue Correct Answer: 2 Your Answer: 1 RATIONALES: A muscle biopsy showing fat and connective tissue deposits confirms the diagnosis of muscular dystrophy. Electromyography commonly shows short, weak bursts of electrical activity in affected muscles; however, it isn't a conclusive test for muscular dystrophy. A family history of muscular dystrophy only suggests the disorder. A Gram stain of muscle tissue is inconclusive. 11 During a senior citizen health screening, the nurse observes a 75-year-old female with a severely increased thoracic curve, or "humpback". What is this condition called? 1.Lordosis 2.Kyphosis 3.Scoliosis 4.Genus varum Correct Answer: 2 Your Answer: 2 RATIONALES: Kyphosis refers to an increased thoracic curvature of the spine, or "humpback." Lordosis is an increase in the lumbar curve or swayback. Scoliosis is a lateral deformity of the spine. Genus varum is a bow-legged appearance of the legs. A client undergoes a muscle biopsy. After the procedure, the nurse must keep the biopsy site elevated for: 1.2 to 4 hours. 2.6 to 8 hours. 3.12 hours. 4.24 hours. Correct Answer: 4 Your Answer: 2 RATIONALES: The nurse must keep the muscle biopsy site elevated for 24 hours to reduce edema. Elevating it for a shorter period may cause edema, worsening discomfort and increasing the risk of tissue injury. Which of the following cells are involved in bone resorption? 1.Chondrocytes 2.Osteoblast s 3.Osteoclast s 4.Osteocytes Correct Answer: 3 Your Answer: 3 RATIONALES: Osteoclasts carry out bone resorption by removing unwanted bone while new bone is forming in other areas. Chondrocytes are responsible for forming new cartilage. Osteoblasts are bone-forming cells that secrete collagen and other substances. Osteocytes, derived from osteoblasts, are the chief cells in bone tissue. 12 The nurse is caring for five clients on the orthopedic unit with the help of a nursing assistant. Which task can the nurse delegate to the nursing assistant. 1.Assisting a client to the bathroom and recording the output in the medical record 2.Notifying the physician of a change in a client's blood pressure 3.Auscultating and recording breath sounds in the medical record 4.Taking a verbal report from the emergency department for a client being admitted to the orthopedic unit Correct Answer: 1 Your Answer: 1 RATIONALES: The nurse can safely delegate activities of daily living such as assisting the client to the bathroom to the nursing assistant. Notifying the physician, auscultating breath sounds, and taking report are all responsibilities that must be performed by a registered nurse. A client comes to the emergency department complaining of pain in the right leg. When obtaining the history, the nurse learns that the client was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus at age 12. The nurse knows that this disease predisposes the client to which musculoskeletal disorder? 1.Degenerative joint disease 2.Muscular dystrophy 3.Scoliosis 4.Paget's disease Correct Answer: 1 Your Answer: 2 RATIONALES: Diabetes mellitus predisposes the client to degenerative joint disease. It isn't a predisposing factor for muscular dystrophy, scoliosis, or Paget's disease. After surgery to treat a hip fracture, a client returns from the postanesthesia care unit to the medical-surgical unit. Postoperatively, how should the nurse position the client? 1.With the affected hip flexed acutely 2.With the leg on the affected side abducted 3.With the leg on the affected side adducted 4.With the affected hip rotated externally Correct Answer: 2 Your Answer: 2 RATIONALES: The nurse must keep the leg on the affected side abducted at all times after hip surgery to prevent accidental dislodgment of the affected hip joint. Placing a pillow or an A-frame between the legs helps maintain abduction and reminds the client not to cross the legs. The nurse should avoid acutely flexing the client's affected hip (for example, by elevating the head of the bed excessively), adducting the leg on the affected side (such as by moving it toward the midline), or externally rotating the affected hip (such as by removing support along the outer side of the leg) because these positions may cause dislocation of the injured hip joint. 13 postoperative care plan? 1.Performing passive range-of-motion (ROM) exercises on the client's legs once each shift 2.Keeping a pillow between the client's legs at all times 3.Turning the client from side to side every 2 hours 4.Maintaining the client in semi-Fowler's position Correct Answer: 2 Your Answer: 2 RATIONALES: After hip pinning, the client must keep the affected leg abducted at all times; placing a pillow between the legs reminds the client not to cross the legs and to keep the leg abducted. Passive or active ROM exercises shouldn't be performed on the affected leg during the postoperative period because this could damage the operative site and cause hip dislocation. Most clients should be turned to the unaffected side, not from side to side. After hip pinning, the client must avoid acute flexion of the affected hip to prevent possible hip dislocation; therefore, semi-Fowler's position should be avoided. Which statement by a staff nurse on the orthopedic floor indicates the need for further staff education? 1."The client is receiving physical therapy twice per day so he doesn't need a continuous passive motion device." 2."The continuous passive motion device can decrease the development of adhesions." 3."Bleeding is a complication associated with the continuous passive motion device." 4."Monitoring skin integrity is important while the continuous passive motion device is in place." Correct Answer: 1 Your Answer: 3 RATIONALES: Further staff education is needed when the nurse states that the continuous passive motion device isn't needed because the client receives physical therapy twice per day. The continuous passive motion device should be used in conjunction with physical therapy because the device helps prevent adhesions. Bleeding is a complication associated with the continuous passive motion device; skin integrity should be monitored while the devise is in use. A client has a Fiberglas cast on the right arm. Which action should the nurse include in the care plan? 1.Keeping the casted arm warm by covering it with a light blanket 2.Avoiding handling the cast for 24 hours or until it is dry 3.Evaluating pedal and posterior tibial pulses every 2 hours 4.Assessing movement and sensation in the fingers of the right hand Correct Answer: 4 Your Answer: 4 RATIONALES: The nurse should assess a casted arm every 2 hours for finger movement and sensation to make sure the cast isn't restricting circulation. To reduce the risk of skin breakdown, the nurse should leave a casted arm uncovered, which allows air to circulate through the cast pores to the skin below. Unlike a plaster cast, a Fiberglas cast dries quickly and can be handled without damage soon after application. The nurse should 14 assess the brachial and radial pulses distal to the cast — not the pedal and posterior tibial pulses, which are found in the legs. A client is prescribed diazepam (Valium) to treat severe skeletal muscle spasms. During this therapy, the nurse monitors the client closely for adverse reactions. Which adverse reaction is most likely to occur? 1.Bradycardia 2.Skin rash 3.Hypotension 4.Sedation Correct Answer: 4 Your Answer: 4 RATIONALES: Most adverse reactions to diazepam and other benzodiazepines involve the central nervous system; less than 1% involve other body systems. Therefore, the client is more likely to experience sedation than bradycardia, skin rash, or hypotension. After a person experiences a closure of the epiphyses, which of the following is true? 1.The bone grows in length but not thickness. 2.The bone increases in thickness and is remodeled. 3.Both bone length and thickness continues. 4.No further increase in bone length occurs. Correct Answer: 4 Your Answer: 4 RATIONALES: After closure of the epiphyses, no further increase in bone length can occur. All of the other options are inappropriate and not related to closure of the epiphyses. A client is in the emergency department with a suspected fracture of the right hip. Which assessment findings would the nurse expect? 1.The right leg is longer than the left leg. 2.The right leg is shorter than the left leg. 3.The right leg is abducted. 4.The right leg is adducted. 5.The right leg is externally rotated. 6.The right leg is internally rotated. Correct Answer: 2,4,5 Your Answer: 2 RATIONALES: In a hip fracture, the affected leg is shorter, adducted, and externally rotated. 15 suspects osteoarthritis for which he prescribes celecoxib (Celebrex). Which health team member should the nurse expect the physician to consult to help manage this client's care? 1.Physical therapist 2.Pain management nurse 3.Gastroenterologist 4.Home care nurse Correct Answer: 1 Your Answer: 4 RATIONALES: The physician should consult the physical therapist to help the client with an exercise program that increases the client's mobility and helps with pain management. Consulting the pain management nurse isn't necessary at this time. Consulting a gastroenterologist isn't necessary unless the client develops GI complications associated with celecoxib therapy. Home care isn't indicated at this time. The physician diagnoses primary osteoporosis in a client who has lost bone mass. In this metabolic disorder, the rate of bone resorption accelerates while bone formation slows. Primary osteoporosis is most common in: 1.elderly men. 2.young children. 3.young menstruating women. 4.elderly, postmenopausal women. Correct Answer: 4 Your Answer: 4 RATIONALES: Although the cause of primary osteoporosis is unknown, an important contributing factor may be faulty protein metabolism resulting from estrogen deficiency and a sedentary lifestyle. Typically, these conditions occur in elderly postmenopausal women. After suffering a fall at home, a client is brought to the emergency department by ambulance. An X-ray confirms the diagnosis of a displaced fracture of the neck of the left femur. Which intervention best immobilizes the client's femur and prevents complication? 1.Placing a sand bag or trochanter roll on the outside of the leg 2.Preparing the client for surgical intervention 3.Applying Buck's traction to the leg 4.Teaching crutch walking Correct Answer: 2 Your Answer: 3 RATIONALES: Preparing the client for surgical intervention prevents complications and provides immediate immobilization through surgical repair. Buck's traction, sand bags, or trochanter rolls may be used temporarily to reduce muscle spasm and pain until the client can be prepared for surgery. Crutch walking on an unrepaired fracture is contraindicated.