(Test Bank) Nur 101 Ncsbn Question Bank (Graded A) Questions And Answers Plus Correctly Explained Rationales.

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NUR 101 NCSBN question bank (GRADED A) Questions and Answers plus correctly explained Rationales Question 1 A c. What document should be in guiding the care of this client? A) Client Self Determination Act B) Physician's treatment orders C) Advance Directives. D) Clinical Pathway protocols Review Information: The correct answer is: C) Advance Directives. This document specifies the client's wishes Question 2 You are the of a health care team that consists of one licensed practical/vocational nurse, one nursing assistant , a nursing student and yourself. To whom is it appropriate to assign complete care for A) Yourself B) The nursing student C) The licensed vocational nurse D) The nursing assistant Review Information: The correct answer is:A) Yourself. While the nurse may delegate a bed bath for a stable client, this care should be performed by an RN for a new admission. Only tasks that do not require independent judgment should be delegated. 3Question 3 A mother brings her the clinic, complaining that the child seems to be The nurse expects to find which of the following on the initial history and physical assessment? A) Increased temperature and lethargy B) Rash and restlessness C) Increased sleeping and listlessness D) Diarrhea and poor skin turgor Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Rash and restlessness. Question 4 As the nurse takes a history of a 3 year-old with neuroblastoma, what comments by the parents require follow-up and are consistent with the diagnosis? A) "The child has been listless and has lost weight." B) "Her urine is dark yellow and small in amounts." C) "Clothes are becoming tighter across her abdomen." D+) "We notice muscle weakness and some unsteadiness." Review Information: The correct answer is:C) "Clothes are becoming tighter across her abdomen.". One of the most common signs of neuroblastoma is increasing abdominal girth. The parents'' report that clothing is tight is significant, and should be followed by additional assessments. Question 5 A 16 year-old presents to the emergency department. The triage nurse finds that this teenager is legally married and signed the consent form for treatment. What would be the appropriate INITIAL action by the nurse? A) Refuse to see the client until a parent or legal guardian can be contacted B) Withhold treatment until telephone consent can be obtained from the spouse C) Refer the client to a community pediatric hospital emergency room D) Assess and treat in the same manner as any adult client Review Information: The correct answer is:D) Assess and treat in the same manner as any adult client. Minors may become known as an "emancipated minor" through marriage, pregnancy, high school graduation, independent living or service in the military. Therefore, this client, who is married, has the legal capacity of an adult. Question 6 A newly admitted elderly client is severely dehydrated. When planning care for this client, which one of the following is an appropriate task for an Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP)? A) Obtain a history of fluid loss B) Report output of less than 30 ml/hr C) Monitor response to IV fluids D) Check skin turgor every four hours Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Report output of less than 30 ml/hr. When directing a UAP, the nurse must communicate clearly about each delegated task with specific instructions on what must be reported. Because the RN is responsible for all care-related decisions,only implementation tasks should be assigned because they do not require independent judgment. Question 7 The nurse is assessing a 4 year-old for possible rheumatic fever. Which of the following would the nurse suspect is related to this diagnosis? A) Diagnosis of chickenpox six months ago B) Exposure to strep throat in daycare last month C) Treatment for ear infection two months ago D) Episode of fungal skin infection last week Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Exposure to strep throat in daycare last month. Evidence supports a strong relationship between infection with Group A streptococci and subsequent rheumatic fever (usually within 2-6 weeks). Therefore, the history of playmates recovering from strep throat would indicate that the child diagnosed with rheumatic fever most likely also had strep throat. Sometimes, such an infection has no clinical symptoms. Question 8 When the nurse becomes aware of feeling reluctant to interact with a manipulative client, the BEST action by the nurse is to A) Discuss the feeling of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor B) Limit contacts with the client to avoid reinforcing the manipulative behavior C) Confront the client regarding the negative effects of his/her behavior on others D) Develop a behavior modification plan that will promote more functional behavior Review Information: The correct answer is:A) Discuss the feeling of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor. The nurse who is experiencing stress in the therapeutic relationship can gain objectivity through supervision. The nurse must attempt to discover attitudes and feelings in the self that influence the nurse- client relationship. Question 9 A client is being treated for paranoid schizophrenia. When the client became loud and boisterous, the nurse immediately placed him in seclusion as a precautionary measure. The client willingly complied. The nurse's action A) May result in charges of unlawful seclusion and restraint B) Leaves the nurse vulnerable for charges of assault and battery C) Was appropriate in view of the client's history of violence D) Was necessary to maintain the therapeutic milieu of the unit Review Information: The correct answer is:A) May result in charges of unlawful seclusion and restraint. Seclusion should only be used when there is an immediate threat of violence or threatening behavior. Question 10 A client has been admitted to the Coronary Care Unit with a Myocardial Infarction. Which of the following nursing diagnosis should have PRIORITY? A) Pain related to ischemia B) Risk for altered elimination: constipation C) Risk for complication: dysrhythmias D) Anxiety Review Information: The correct answer is:A) Pain related to ischemia. Pain is related to ischemia, and relief of pain will decrease myocardial oxygen demands, reduce blood pressure and heart rate and relieve anxiety. Pain also stimulates the sympathetic nervous system and increased preload, further increasing myocardial demands. Question 11 The nurse manager who is responsible for hiring professional nursing staff is required to comply with the Americans with Disabilities Act. The provisions of the law require the nurse manager to A) Maintain an environment free from hazards B) Provide reasonable accommodations for disabled individuals C) Make all necessary accommodations for disabled individuals D) Consider only physical disabilities in making employment decisions Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Provide reasonable accommodations for disabled individuals. The law is designed to permit persons with disabilities access to job opportunities. Employers must evaluate an applicant's ability to perform the job and not discriminate on the basis of a disability. Employers also must make "reasonable accommodations. Question 12 The mother of a school-aged child in a long leg cast asks the nurse how to relieve itching inside the cast. Which of the following is appropriate for the nurse to suggest as a remedy? A) Scratching the outside of the cast vigorously, applying pressure over the area B) Blowing a hair dryer or heat lamp on the cast over the area that is itching C) Using a long, smooth piece of wood to gently scratch the affected area D) Applying an ice pack over the area of the cast that is affected Review Information: The correct answer is:D) Applying an ice pack over the area of the cast that is affected. Applying ice is a safe method of relieving the itching. Question 13 Which of the following BEST describes the application of time management strategies in the role of the nurse manager? A) Scheduling staff efficiently to cover client needs B) Assuming a fair share of the client care as a role model C) Setting daily goals to prioritize work D) Delegating tasks to reduce work load Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Setting daily goals to prioritize work. Time management strategies must include setting priorities and meeting goals. Question 14 The clinic nurse assesses a toddler with a tentative diagnosis of neuroblastoma. Symptoms the nurse observes that suggest this problem include A) Lymphedema and nerve palsy B) Hearing loss and ataxia C) Headaches and vomiting D) Abdominal mass and weakness Review Information: The correct answer is:D) Abdominal mass and weakness. Clinical manifestations of neuroblastoma include an irregular abdominal mass that crosses the midline, weakness, pallor, anorexia, weight loss and irritability. Question 15 A fifteen year-old client has been placed in a Milwaukee Brace. Which one of the following statements from the client indicates the need for additional teaching? A) "I will only have to wear this for six months." B) "I should inspect my skin daily." C) "The brace will be worn day and night." D) "I can take it off when I shower." Review Information: The correct answer is:A) "I will only have to wear this for six months.". The brace must be worn long-term, usually for 1-2 years. Question 16 The nurse manager has been using a decentralized block scheduling plan to staff the nursing unit. However, staff have asked for many changes and exceptions to the schedule over the past few months. The manager considers self-scheduling knowing that A) Quality of care will improve B) Staff turnover should decrease C) Flexible scheduling will occur D) Team morale will improve Review Information: The correct answer is:D) Team morale will improve. Nurses are more satisfied with autonomy and control. The nurse manager becomes the facilitator of scheduling rather than the decision-maker of the schedule. Question 17 A client is admitted to the emergency room following an acute asthma attack. Which of the following assessments would be expected by the nurse? A) Diffuse expiratory wheezing B) Loose, productive cough C) No relief from inhalant D) Fever and chills Review Information: The correct answer is:A) Diffuse expiratory wheezing. In asthma, the airways are narrowed - creating difficulty getting air in and a wheezing sound. Question 18 The nurse manager hears a physician loudly criticizing one of the staff nurses in the hearing of others. The employee does not respond to the physician's complaints. The nurse manager's FIRST action should be A) Walk up to the physician and quietly ask that this unacceptable behavior stop B) Allow the staff nurse to handle this situation without interference C) Notify the Nursing Director and Medical Staff Chief of a breech of professional conduct D) Request an immediate private meeting with the physician and staff nurse Review Information: The correct answer is:D) Request an immediate private meeting with the physician and staff nurse. Assertive communication respects the needs of all parties to express themselves, but not at the expense of others. The nurse manager needs first to protect clients and other staff from this display and come to the assistance of the nurse employee. Question 19 A client voluntarily admits herself to the hospital due to suicidal ideation. The client has been on the unit for two days and is now demanding to be released. The MOST appropriate action is for the nurse to A) Tell the client that she cannot be released because she is still suicidal B) Inform the client that she can be released only if she signs a no suicide contract C) Discuss with the client the decision to leave and prepare for her discharge D) Instruct her regarding her right to sign out upon receipt of the physician's discharge order Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Discuss with the client the decision to leave and prepare for her discharge. Clients voluntarily admitted to the hospital have a right to demand and obtain release. Discussing the decision allows opportunity for other interventions. Question 20 A client is admitted with infective endocarditis (IE). Which symptom would alert the nurse to a complication of this condition? A) Dyspnea B) Heart murmur C) Macular rash D) Hemorrhage Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Heart murmur. Large, soft, rapidly developing vegetations attach to the heart valves. They have a tendency to break off, causing emboli and leaving ulcerations on the valve leaflets. These emboli produce symptoms of cardiac murmur, fever, anorexia, malaise and neurologic sequelae of emboli. Furthermore, the vegetations may travel to various organs such as spleen, kidney, coronary artery, brain and lungs and obstruct blood flow. Question 21 A nurseadmits a premature infant who has respiratory distress syndrome. In planning care, nursing actions are based on the fact that the MOST likely cause of this problem stems from the infant's inability to A) Stabilize thermoregulation B) Maintain alveolar surface tension C) Begin normal pulmonary blood flow D) Regulate intracardiac pressure Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Maintain alveolar surface tension. Respiratory distress syndrome is primarily a disease related to developmental delay in lung maturation. Although many factors lead to the development of the problem, the central factor relates to the lack of a normally functioning surfactant system due to immaturity in lung development. Question 22 An 18 year-old client is admitted to intensive care from the emergency room following a diving accident. The injury is suspected to be at the level of the 2nd cervical vertebrae. The nurse's PRIORITY assessment should be A) Response to stimuli B) Bladder control C) Respiratory function D) Muscle weakness Review Information : The correct answer is: C) Respiratory function. Spinal injury at the C-2 level results in quadriplegia. While the client will experience all of the problems identified, respiratory assessment is a priority. Question 23 The nurse is caring for a client who was successfully resuscitated from a pulseless dysrhythmia. Which of the following assessments is CRITICAL for the nurse to include in the plan of care? A) Hourly urine output B) White blood count C) Blood glucose every four hours D) Temperature every two hours Review Information: The correct answer is:A) Hourly urine output. Clients who have had an episode of decreased glomerular perfusion are at risk for pre-renal failure. This is caused by any abnormal decline in kidney perfusion that reduces glomerular perfusion. Pre-renal failure occurs when the effective arterial blood volume falls. Examples of this phenomena include a drop in circulating blood volume as in a cardiac arrest state or in low cardiac perfusion states such as congestive heart failure associated with a cardiomyopathy. Close observation of hourly urinary output is necessary for early detection of this condition. Question 24 The nurse admitting a 5 month-old who vomited nine times in the past six hours should observe for signs of A) Metabolic acidosis B) Metabolic alkalosis C) Respiratory acidosis D) Respiratory alkalosis Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Metabolic alkalosis. Vomiting causes loss of acid from the stomach. Prolonged vomiting can result in excess loss and lead to metabolic alkalosis. Question 25 A child is injured on the school playground and appears to have a fractured leg. The FIRST action the school nurse should take is A) Call for emergency transport to the hospital B) Immobilize the limb and joints above and below the injury C) Assess the child and the extent of the injury D) Apply cold compresses to the injured area Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Assess the child and the extent of the injury. When applying the nursing process, assessment is the first step in providing care. The 5 "Ps" of vascular impairment can be used as a guide (pain, pulse, pallor, paresthesia, paralysis). Question 26 As the nurse interviews the parents of a child with asthma, it is a PRIORITY to ask about A) Household pets B) New furniture C) Lead based paint D) Plants such as cactus Review Information: The correct answer is:A) Household pets. Animal dander is a very common allergen affecting persons with asthma. Other triggers may include pollens, carpeting and household dust. Question 27 An 80 year-old client was admitted with a diagnosis of possible cerebral vascular accident. Blood pressure has ranged from 180/110 to 160/100. Over the past several hours, the nurse noted increasing lethargy. Which of the following assessments should the nurse report IMMEDIATELY to the physician? A) Slurred speech B) Incontinence C) Muscle weakness D) Rapid pulse Review Information: The correct answer is:A) Slurred speech. Changes in speech patterns and level of conscious can be indicators of continued intercranial bleeding. Treatment options may change based on further diagnostic tests. Question 28 A 3 year-old child is brought to the clinic by his grandmother to be seen for "scratching his bottom and wetting the bed at night." Based on these complaints, the nurse would INITIALLY assess for A) Allergies B) Hyperactivity C) Regression D) Pinworms Review Information: The correct answer is:D) Pinworms. Signs of pinworm infection include intense perianal itching, poor sleep patterns, general irritability, restlessness, bed-wetting, distractibility and short attention span. Question 29 A 72 year-old client with osteomyelitis requires a six week course of intravenous antibiotics. In planning for home care, the MOST important action by the nurse is A) Investigating the client's insurance coverage for home IV antibiotic therapy B) Determining if there are adequate hand washing facilities in the home C) Assessing the client's ability to participate in self care and/or the reliability of a caregiver D) Selecting the appropriate venous access device Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Assessing the client''s ability to participate in self care and/or the reliability of a caregiver. The cognitive ability of the client as well as the availability and reliability of a caregiver must be assessed to determine if home care is a feasible option. Question 30 The mother of a child with a neural tube defect asks the nurse what she can do to decrease the chances of having another baby with a neural tube defect. The BEST response by the nurse is A) "Folic acid should be taken before and after conception." B) "Multivitamin supplements are recommended during pregnancy." C) "A well balanced diet promotes normal fetal development." D) "Increased dietary iron improves the health of mother and fetus." Review Information: The correct answer is:A) "Folic acid should be taken before and after conception.". The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends that all childbearing women increase folic acid from dietary sources and/or supplements. There is evidence that increased amounts of folic acid prevents neural tube defects. Question 31 The nurse is caring for a newborn with a neural tube defect. The BEST covering for the lesion is A) Telfa dressing with antibiotic ointment B) Moist sterile nonadherent dressing C) Dry sterile dressing D) Sterile occlusive pressure dressing Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Moist sterile nonadherent dressing. Before surgical closure the sac is prevented from drying by the application of a sterile, moist, nonadherent dressing over the defect. Dressings are changed frequently to keep them moist. Question 32 A nurse is providing a parenting class to individuals living in a community of older homes. In discussing formula preparation, which of the following is most important to prevent lead poisoning? A) Use ready-to-feed commercial infant formula B) Boil the tap water for 10 minutes prior to preparing the formula C) Let tap water run for 2 minutes before adding to concentrate D) Buy bottled water labeled "lead free" to mix the formula Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Let tap water run for 2 minutes before adding to concentrate. Use of lead-contaminated water to prepare formula is a major source of poisoning in infants. Drinking water may be contaminated by lead from old lead pipes or lead solder used insealing water pipes. Letting tap water run for several minutes will diminish the lead contamination. Question 33 A client is admitted to the rehabilitation unit following a CVA and mild dysphagia. The MOST appropriate intervention for this client is A) Position client in upright position while eating B) Place client on a clear liquid diet C) Tilt head back to facilitate swallowing reflex D) Offer finger foods such as crackers or pretzels Review Information: The correct answer is:A) Position client in upright position while eating. An upright position facilitates proper chewing and swallowing. Question 34 The nurse explains an autograft to a client scheduled for excision of a skin tumor. The nurse knows the client understands the procedure when the client says, "I will receive tissue from A) a tissue bank." B) a pig." C) my thigh." D) synthetic skin." Review Information: The correct answer is:C) my thigh.". Autografts are done with tissue transplanted from the client''s own skin. Question 35 The nurse is caring for a newborn with tracheoesophageal fistula. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is a PRIORITY? A) Risk for dehydration B) Ineffective airway clearance C) Altered nutrition D) Risk for injury Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Ineffective airway clearance. The most common form of TEF is one in which the proximal esophageal segment terminates in a blind pouch and the distal segment is connected to the trachea or primary bronchus by a short fistula at or near the bifurcation. Thus, a priority is maintaining an open airway, preventing aspiration. Other nursing diagnoses are then addressed. Question 36 A client has been hospitalized after an automobile accident. A full leg cast was applied in the emergency room. The MOST important reason for the nurse to elevate the casted leg is to A) Promote the client's comfort B) Reduce the drying time C) Decrease irritation to the skin D) Improve venous return Review Information: The correct answer is:D) Improve venous return. Elevating the leg both improves venous return and reduces swelling. Question 37 A nurse is working with family members of a newly diagnosed client with Alzheimer's disease. Which of the following interventions is MOST helpful? A) Teaching relaxation techniques B) Implementing a daily exercise routine C) Improving daily nutritional intake D) Suggesting communication strategies Review Information: The correct answer is:D) Suggesting communication strategies. Since Alzheimer''s disease is a progressive chronic illness that greatly challenges caregivers, the nurse can be of greatest assistance in helping family to identify language changes, and select verbal and nonverbal communication strategies to minimize aberrant behavior. Question 38 The nurse is teaching a client with non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus about the prescribed diet. The nurse should teach the client to A) Maintain previous calorie intake B) Keep a candy bar available at all times C) Reduce carbohydrates intake to 25% of total calories D) Keep a regular schedule of meals and snacks Review Information: The correct answer is:D) Keep a regular schedule of meals and snacks. Currently, calorie-controlled diets with strict mealplans are rarely suggested for clients who have diabetes. Try to incorporate schedule or food changes into clients'' existing dietary patterns. Help clients learn to read labels and identify specific canned foods, frozen entrees, or other foods which are acceptable and those which should be avoided. Question 39 The mother of a two month-old baby calls the nurse at a well-baby clinic two days after the first DTaP immunization. She reports that the baby feels very warm, has cried inconsolably for as long as three hours, and has had several shaking spells. The response of the nurse should be to A) instruct the mother to call 911 for an ambulance to transport the infant B) suggest that these are expected reactions and to begin every 4 hour antipyretics C) tell the mother to take the infant immediately to the nearest emergency room D) give instructions to bring the infant to the clinic now Review Information: The correct answer is:A)instruct the mother to call 911 for an ambulance to transport the infant The exhibited findings of the infant indicate a severe reaction to the immunizations. Immediate attention is needed & an ambulance with trained staff needs to transport because of the risk of grand mal seizures from potential encephalopathy which is a critical reaction. The mother would need to be instructed after this acute reaction to inform the provider of this reaction to the first dose of DTaP. Based on the need and risk involved to the infant, the health care provider may decide that further DTaP immunizations are contraindicated for life. The clinic nurse would need to document in the notes for this infant: the instructions given, findings reported by the mother and specific follow-up needs for the next clinic visit in relation to teaching and evaluation of the outcome of this event. Question 40 The nurse is teaching a class on HIV prevention. Which of the following should be emphasized as increasing risk? A) Donating blood B) Using public bathrooms C) Unprotected sex D) Touching a person with AIDS Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Unprotected sex. Because HIV is spread through exposure to bodily fluids, unprotected intercourse and shared drug paraphernalia remain the highest risk for infection. Question 41 A 6 year-old child is seen for the first time in the clinic. Upon assessment, the nurse finds that the child has short palpebral fissures, thinned upper lip, and hypoplastic philtrum of the upper lip. The mother states that the child seems to have problems in learning to count and recognizing basic colors. Based on this data, the nurse suspects that the child is MOST likely showing the effects of A) Congenital abnormalities B) Chronic toxoplasmosis C) Fetal alcohol syndrome D) Lead poisoning