(Test Bank) Nsg 6440 Question Bank / Nsg6440 Question Bank (New, 2022): South University

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1 Total General ------ 888 preguntas HEALTH PROMOTION (31) 1- A 58 -year-old patient has an annual exam. A fecal occult blood test was used to screen for colon cancer. Three were ordered on separate days. The first test was positive; the last two were negative. How should the nurse practitioner proceed? Rescreen in one year. Perform a fourth exam. Refer him for a colonoscopy. Correct Examine him for hemorrhoids. Explanation: A fecal occult blood test is performed multiple times on different days because tumors don’t consistently excrete blood. The reason multiple are performed is to increase the likelihood of identifying blood. The patient needs to have a colonoscopy performed for examination of the colon. The standard of practice is to refer all positive colon cancer screens for colonoscopy. 2 -A criterion for medication choice in an older adult is: long half -life to prevent frequent dosing. dosing of 3 -4 times daily. pill col or and shape for easy identification. half-life less than 24 hours. Correct Explanation: Many factors go into prescribing for older adults. Some important safety criteria include established efficacy, low adverse event profile, and half -life less than 24 hours with no active metabolites. Active metabolites would produce a longer effect of the drug in the patient. Dosing of a medication three to four times daily invites dosing and medication errors. Once - or twice -daily dosing is ideal. Pill color and shap e is never a criterion for prescribing. Patients who are cognitively able will recognize the color, shape, and size of pills they take on a regular basis. 3- What should the nurse practitioner recommend to any elder taking medications? Have someone check y our medications prior to taking them Never take your medicine on an empty stomach Keep a list of all of your medications with you Correct Have a pharmacist review your list once a year Explanation: A list of current medications should be kept with each p atient and carried with him, 2 especially when healthcare visits are scheduled. Many older adults are capable of taking medications without supervision. Many medications should be taken without food (thyroid supplementation for example). A pharmacist can eva luate the list of medications for drug -drug interactions, but the pharmacist will not know the diagnoses and other reasons for choosing the medications. Question: 4- What temperature should be set on a water heater in the home of an older adult to prevent burn injury? Less than 110 degrees Less than 120 degrees correct Less than 130 degrees Less than 140 degrees Explanation: Hot water heaters are common sources of burns in homes of older adults and very young patients . Many safety organizations in the United States believe that burns can be prevented if hot water heaters are set to less than 120° F. Question: 5- What is the recommendation from American Cancer Society for assessment of the prostate gland in a man who is 45 years old and of average risk for development of prostate cancer? He should have: screening starting at 50 years of age. Correct prostate specific antigen (PSA) now. PSA and digital rectal exam now. digital rectal exam only. Explanation: At age 50 years, males of average prostate ca ncer risk should have PSA measurement with or without digital rectal exam (DRE). If they are deemed to be of high risk because of a family history (first -degree relative with prostate cancer before age 65 years) or race (African American), screening discus sions should take place at age 40 -45 years. If initial PSA is > 2.5 ng/mL, annual testing should take place. If the initial PSA is < 2.5 ng/mL, test every 2 years. Question: 6 - A 75 -year-old adult asks for the pneumonia vaccine. His immunization record indicates that he had one at age 65 and another a year later. What is the recommendation of the CDC about how the NP should handle his request? 3 Revaccination is recommended now Revaccination is recommended every 5 years after age 65 years Do not revaccinat e this patient at this time Correct He should have received one at age 70 years Explanation: The recommendation of CDC is NOT to revaccinate this patient. After initial vaccination with PCV13 at age 65 years and subsequent vaccination with PPSV23 1 year later, no revaccination is recommended in this patient. Question 7- A patient who has been treated for hypothyroidism presents for her annual exam. Her TSH is 4.1 (normal = 0.4 - 3.8). She feels well. How should she be managed? Continue her current dosage o f thyroid replacement. Increase her replacement. Decrease her replacement. Repeat the TSH in 2 -3 weeks. Correct Explanation: When an abnormal TSH is received, especially when a patient is not symptomatic, it should be repeated. Sometimes there are peri ods of transient hypothyroidism, lab error, and missed doses that can cause changes in TSH levels. Question: 8 - A 20 -year-old student has an MMR titer that demonstrates an unprotective titer for rubella. She is HIV positive. Her CD4 cell count is unknown. Which statement is true? She should not receive the MMR immunization because she is low risk for the disease. MMR is safe to give but she does not need this. She is at risk for MMR but should not be immunized. Correct She should receive this. The immun ization is not alive. Explanation: This patient is at risk for rubella because she does not have a sufficient titer. The MMR immunization is an attenuated virus. Though an attenuated immunization is weakened, it is still considered live and so is contrain dicated in anyone who may be immunocompromised. Since her CD4 cell count is unknown, she should not receive this immunization yet. She may be able to receive this immunization if her CD4 count is normal. Question: 9- What choice below would be beneficial t o a 76 -year-old who takes daily oral steroids 4 for COPD and now takes a daily aspirin for primary prevention of myocardial infarction? Screen for infection with H. pylori Daily proton pump inhibitor (PPI) Correct Antacids PRN heartburn Daily use of low dose famotidine Explanation: Aspirin does increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, especially if it is given in combination with oral steroids. Most learned authorities and ACOVE (Assessing Care of Vulnerable Elders) agree that when two or more ri sk factors for GI bleed are present, aspirin should not be added without some form of protection for the GI tract (misoprostol or a daily PPI). In considering all the risks for GI bleed, the most significant ones are age > 75 years, history of GI bleeding, warfarin use, daily NSAID use, and chronic steroid use. Question: 10- A patient who is 62 years old asks if she can get the shingles vaccine. She has never had shingles but states that she wants to make sure she doesn’t get it. What should the nurse pract itioner advise? The immunization will protect you from acquiring shingles. You are not old enough to receive the immunization. The immunization is offered only to those who have had shingles. You are eligible to receive it but you still may get shingles. Correct Explanation: Patients must be at least 50 years old to receive the shingles immunization. It is generally well tolerated but provides protection from shingles in 50 -64% of patients. The incidence of postherpetic neuralgia is decreased u p to 65% after immunization. The patient still may develop shingles after receiving the immunization. The vaccine may be offered regardless of whether the patient has history of shingles. However, since it is a live vaccine, it may be contraindicated becau se of steroid use or immune status. Question: 11- Which pharmacokinetic factor is influenced by a decrease in liver mass in an older adult? Absorption Distribution Metabolism Correct Elimination 5 Explanation: As the liver decreases in mass and potentially has a decrease in blood flow, drug metabolism is decreased . Consequently, lower doses of medications in older adults may be as efficacious as higher doses in their younger counterparts. Production of enzymes in the cytochrome P450 system may be decreased, which further impacts metabolism. Question: 12- An older adult has osteopenia. Her healthcare provider has recommended calcium 500 mg three times daily. What is the most common side effect of calcium supplementation? Stomach upset Diarrhea Constipation Correct Mild nausea initially Explanation: Constipation is the most common side effect of calcium supplementation. To improve tolerance, the nurse practitioner can suggest 500 mg daily for a week, then 500 mg twice daily for a week, then three times daily. The patient should be encouraged to increase the intake of fruits, vegetables, fluid, and fiber. Weightbearing exercise and vitamin D intake should be encouraged to improve bone density. Question: 13- Screening for abdominal aortic aneurysm should take pl ace: once for all males aged 65 -75 who have ever smoked. Correct once for all men and women who have hypertension. annually after age 75 years for males and females. only if the patient has smoked and has hypertension. Explanation: The prevalence of abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is greater in men than women. American Heart Association and USPSTF recommend screening males once between ages 65 -75 years if they have ever smoked. Smoking increases the risk of AAA. The USPSTF does not r ecommend routinely screening for AAA in women or screening for AAA in men who have never smoked. Screening may be considered in men aged 65 -75 years if they have a first -degree relative who required repair of AAA. Question: 14- A 67 -year-old patient presen ts an immunization record that reflects having received the PCV13 immunization when she was 65 years old. She received the PPSV23 6 immunization one year later. Which statement below reflects the current standard of practice recommended by ACIP and CDC for t his patient? She should be revaccinated today. She should receive the immunization every 5 years. She can elect to receive it today if she has COPD. She does not need the immunization. Correct Explanation: The recommendation by ACIP and CDC is as this patient has received it, the PCV13 at age 65 and PPSV23 1 year later. Routine revaccination is not recommended for this patient because she has met the standard by ACIP and CDC. It should not be routinely given every 5 years. Question: 15- Which recommenda tion below reflects CDC’s recommendation for administration of the zoster vaccine? It should be given to immunocompetent adults age 60 and older. Correct It should be given to immunocompetent adults age 65 and older. It can be given regardless of immune status at age 50. It can be given regardless of immune status at age 60. Explanation: CDC’s recommendation for the zoster vaccine is for administration in immunocompetent adults aged 60 years and older. The zoster vaccine is currently FDA approved for us e in immunocompetent adults age 50 or older. It should never be used to treat shingles. Question: 16- A mammogram in a healthy 50 -year-old female patient is an example of: primary prevention. secondary prevention. Correct tertiary prevention. quaternary prevention. Explanation: This is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention is represented by screenings intended to identify early course of a disease. In this example, a mammogram is intended to identify early breast cancer. Question: 17- What is the most common nutrition syndrome in older adults? 7 Undernutrition Correct Over nutrition Malnourishment Vitamin B12 deficiency Explanation: Some older adults have great challenges associated with eating and maintaining weight. They may be edentulous or have anorexia. Weight loss is associated with greater mortality in older adults than in patients who have not had recent weight loss. Clinicall y significant weight loss is usually considered to be about 4 -5% of total body weight within 6 -12 months. In older patients who do lose weight, they are less likely than younger adults to gain it back. This also increases risk of mortality. Question: 18- A 13-year-old male has exhibited the first sign that he is experiencing sexual maturation. He has: an increase in testicular size. Correct an enlargement of the scrotum. an increase in length of the penis. scrotal and penile changes. Explanation: A male with Tanner Stage II development will have an increase in testicular volume from 1.5 mL or less, to up to 6 mL. The skin on the scrotum will begin to thin, redden, and enlarge. The penile length will remain the same. Males begin sexual maturity later than females. In the United States, males begin sexual maturation about 2 years later than females. Maturity begins in girls about 9 -12 years. Question: 19- Two common causes of weight loss in older adults are: anorexia and depression. depression and malignancy . Correct malignancy and social isolation. financial limitations and hyperthyroidism. Explanation: Malignancy is the most common cause of weight loss in the older adults. Depression is the second most common reason. Another reason that contributes to w eight loss is social isolation. Many elders live alone and consequently eat alone. Many older adults have financial and mobility limitations that make eating and acquiring foods more difficult. Anorexia is not unusual in older adults, but there are a numbe r of reasons for this. Some are physical, social, and psychosocial. 8 Question: 20- An octogenarian asks the nurse practitioner if it is OK for him to have an alcoholic beverage in the evenings. There is no obvious contraindication. How should the nurse practitioner respond? Yes, but not more that 4 days per week. Yes, but not more than 1 -2 drinks per day. Correct No, you will increase your risk of falling and injury. It depends on the type of alcohol you would like to consume. Explanation: A good rule of thumb for alcohol consumption in older adults is no more than one to two drinks/day after age 65 years. If the patient is cognitively impaired, abstinence is recommended. The type of alcohol is not of great importance. Beer, wine, and hard liquor all contain alcohol, which has the potential to impair older adults. The reason alcohol should be limited or avoided is because of decreased lean body mass and decreased total body water in aging bodies. Question: 21- A patient who wrote a living wil l has changed his mind about the initiation of life - sustaining measures. Which statement is true about this? He cannot change his mind regarding the content of the living will. He can only change the content if he is of sound mind. Correct A healthcare pr ovider is exempt from liability if they provide care outside the living will. An attorney must be consulted if the living will is changed at any time. Explanation: A living will is intended to allow a patient to provide instructions for his family and healthcare providers about how he would like his care directed if he is unable to make these decisions. He can change the content at any time. If, however, he is determined not to be of sound mind, any changes that he attempts to make should not be followed. A healthcare provider is bound to carry out the living will provided it does not violate any laws or the ethics of the provider. In this case, the provider would be exempt from liability for not carrying these out. In the case of an ethical dilemma, the he althcare provider should identify another healthcare provider who is willing to carry them out. An attorney is not required to be consulted to change the content of a living will. Question: 22- The incidence of osteoporosis in older adults is high. Which c haracteristics below would increase the risk of osteoporosis in an older adult male patient? 9 Low body weight, age 60 years Smoker, age 65 years Chronic glucocorticoid therapy, age 70 years Correct Family history of hypothyroidism, age 65 years Explanation: Women should be screened for osteoporosis starting at age 65 years, and sooner if risk factors are present. Males older than 65 years should be screened with DEXA scanning if they exhibit risk factors. Risk factors with the greatest impact on bone density include primary hyperparathyroidism, chronic glucocorticoid therapy and hypogonadism. Question: 23- At what age should hearing screening take place in older adults according to Assessing Care in Vulnerable Elders (ACOVE -2)? 60 years 65 years 70 years 75 years Correct Explanation: Assessing Care in Vulnerable Elders (ACOVE -2) authors recommend annual hearing screen for adults age 75 years and older as part of initial evaluation. If he fails hearing screening, he then should be offered formal audiologic evaluation within 3 months. In studies, screening annually resulted in greater adherence with using hearing assistive devices when hearing problems were identified. Question: 24- A 74 -year-old who retired as a store clerk last year would like to start an exercise program. She tells the nurse practitioner that she would like to start walking 15 -20 minutes daily. Which statement is correct regarding the patient? She should have a stress test prior to initiating a walking program. She should have an EKG performed in the clinic today. She does not need any testing because she is asymptomatic. Correct She should have labs and EKG performed prior to starting. Explanation: The obvious risk of starting a new exercise program is the risk of cardiac eve nts. Evidence does not support routine EKG or cardiac testing in patients who are asymptomatic . She should be told about symptoms to watch for and to stop immediately if chest pain or shortness of breath develops. A 74 -year-old who retired last year will benefit from any type of exercise. She will develop improved conditioning, reduce her risk of many chronic diseases including cardiovascular disease, reduce the risk of falls, 10 and decrease functional limitations. Exercises for older adults fall into four ca tegories: aerobic, muscle strengthening, flexibility and balance. Question: 25- Which finding below is considered “within normal limits”? A diastolic murmur in an 18 -year-old An INR of 2.0 in a patient taking warfarin Correct Cholesterol level of 205 mg/dL in a 15 -year-old Blood pressure of 160/70 mmHg in a 75 -year-old Explanation: An INR (International Normalized Ratio) is considered the best measure of clotting status in outpatients. Depending on the reason for anticoagulation, a common target is 2.0 - 3.0. Diastolic murmurs are always considered abnormal regardless of age. Cholesterol levels in adolescents should be less than 170 mg/dL (according to National Heart, Lung and Blood institute, NHLBI). Blood pressure of 160/75 mmHg constitutes isolate d systolic hypertension, so this is abnormal. Question: 26- A patient is 86 years old and functions independently. He has hypertension, hyperlipidemia, BPH, and flare -ups of gout. His last colonoscopy was at age 76 years. What should he be advised about ha ving a colonoscopy? Colonoscopy is the preferred method for screening in older adults Colonoscopy is ill advised in older adults It is not advised in this patient at this time Correct Screening is not necessary after age 80 years Explanation: Prior to any screening test such as colonoscopy, consideration must be given to the patient’s overall health status, colorectal cancer risk, and desire to pursue treatment if cancer or disease is diagnosed. The United States Preventive Services Task Force, American College of Physicians, and American College of Gastroenterology do not recommend screening an 86 -year-old for colorectal cancer . As a general rule, patients with a life expectancy of less than 5 -10 years should forego colorectal cancer screening via colon oscopy. Colonoscopy enables the examiner to visualize the entire colon and is a superior screening tool for colorectal cancer, but there are significant risks of bleeding and perforation in older adults. Additionally, the colon prep can produce massive shi fts in electrolytes that can increase the likelihood of arrhythmias, heart failure, weakness, and falls. Question: 27- A 76 -year-old patient who is very active has elevated cholesterol and LDLs. He had 11 been treated for hypertension for > 10 years with near normal blood pressures. What is the current recommendation for managing his lipids? No treatment should take place since his age exceeds 75 years. He should be treated with an aspirin only. He should be treated with a statin. Correct The benefits of treating this patient do not exceed the risk of using a statin or aspirin. Explanation: Numerous studies (PROSPER, 2006) and learned authorities (including the USPSTF) have found that lipid -lowering drug therapy decreases the incidence of coronary heart disease and vascular events in middle -aged and older adults. The current recommendation is to screen and treat lipid abnormalities in patients who are at risk for a cardiac event. It is unclear whether treatment of middle -aged and older adults at low risk f or cardiac events is beneficial. Question: 28- What is true regarding the shingles vaccine given to adults at or after age 50? It is a weakened form of the chickenpox virus. It is the same as the chickenpox virus. It contains significantly more virus than the chickenpox vaccine. Correct It is not related to the chickenpox immunization at all. Explanation: The shingles (Herpes zoster) vaccine contains 14 times the number of plaque -forming units of virus than the varicella vaccine. The immunization has redu ced the incidence of shingles and postherpetic neuralgia in adults who received it. The vaccine is recommended by CDC for all immunocompetent adults who are 60 years or older. It is given once. The FDA has approved use of this vaccine at age 50 years. The vaccine is only used to prevent shingles. It is not used to treat shingles or postherpetic neuralgia. Question: 29- An oral antifungal agent is commonly used to treat tinea unguium. The difficulty in treating an older adult with this is infection is: absor ption of the medication. applying the medication twice daily. tolerability of the medication. Correct relative ineffectiveness of oral agents. Explanation: The most efficacious agents used to treat toenail fungus are the oral antifungal agents. They mu st be taken daily for 8 -16 weeks (or longer) for adequate length of treatment. 12 Additionally, the real difficulty lies in the ability of the older adult's liver to handle this medication. Oral antifungal agents require great amounts of the liver’s resources for metabolism. A topical agent or toenail removal may be a better choice for an older adult. Question: 30- What is the recommendation for daily multivitamin supplementation in older adults? Supplementation reduces morbidity. Supplementation reduces mortality. It decreases the relative risk of dementia. It has no proven benefit. Correct Explanation: No studies have demonstrated specific benefit to daily consumption of multivitamins in older adults. However, a daily multivitamin supplement ensures ad equate intake of essential vitamins and so should be considered for older adults. Question: 31- In older adult females, which screening test has demonstrated greatest reduction in mortality from cancer? Breast Correct Cervical Ovarian Lung Explanation: There are no recommendations for screening for ovarian or lung cancer in older women. Cervical cancer is primarily a disease found in younger women. When it is identified in older adults, there is usually a higher mortality rate than in younger women. Howe ver, the incidence of cervical cancer is much lower in older adults. Screening for breast cancer has demonstrated the highest reduction in mortality . Mammography should be performed every 1 -2 years, according to the American Geriatrics Society. NEUROLOGICO (63) Question: 1- A patient who is 82 years old is brought into the clinic. His wife states that he was working in his garden today and became disoriented and had slurred speech. She helped him back into the house, gave him cool fluids, and within 15 minutes his symptoms 13 resolved. He appears in his usual state of health when he is examined. He states that although he was scared by the event, he feels fine now. How should the nurse practitioner proceed? Prescri be an aspirin daily. Re-examine him tomorrow. Send him to the emergency department. Correct Order an EKG. Explanation: This patient likely suffered a transient ischemic attack. He needs urgent evaluation with head CT and/or MRI, ECG, lab work (CBC, PTT, lytes, creatinine, glucose, lipids and sedimentation rate); possible magnetic resonance angiography, carotid ultrasound, and/or transcranial Doppler ultrasonography. He is at increased risk of stroke within the first 48 hours after an event like this one. On initial evaluation, the most important determination to be made is whether the etiology of the stroke or TIA is ischemic or hemorrhagic. After this determination, treatment can begin. Unfortunately, this determination cannot be made in the clinic. The p atient needs urgent referral to a center where this evaluation and possible treatment can be performed. Question: 2- The most common presenting sign of Parkinson’s disease is: muscular rigidity. tremor. Correct falling. bradykinesia. Explanation: Appro ximately 70% of patients with Parkinson’s disease have tremor as the presenting symptom. The tremor typically involves the hand but can involve the legs, jaw, lips, tongue. It seldom involves the head. Muscular rigidity and bradykinesia are two less common presenting signs. Question: 3- When should medications be initiated in a patient who is diagnosed with Parkinson’s disease? As soon as the disease is diagnosed When symptoms interfere with life’s activities Correct When nonpharmacologic measures have been exhausted After MRI and CT have ruled out stroke or tumor Explanation: 14 The medications used to treat patients who have Parkinson’s disease do not prevent progression of the disease. Therefore, it is not necessary to start medications until symptoms i nterfere with the patient's quality of life. Levodopa is often used initially at the lowest dose that helps a patient manage symptoms. It can be titrated upward as needed. Orthostatic hypotension is a common side effect of levodopa, so blood pressure shoul d be monitored closely. Question: 4- A 72 -year-old patient with history of polymyalgia rheumatica complains of new onset, unilateral headache and visual changes. Her neurologic exam is otherwise normal. What is the most likely reason for her symptoms? Image 1 Image 2 Image 3 Transient ischemic attack Temporal arteritis Correct Meningitis CVA Explanation: Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a chronic inflammatory condition that produces morning stiffness in the neck, shoulders, and hips. Its peak incidence is 70 -80 years old. PMR is commonly associated with temporal arteritis, also known as giant cell arteritis . Temporal arteritis is a chronic vasculitis of the medium and large vessels. Temporal 15 arteritis is characterized by new onset unilateral temporal headache, abrupt onset of visual disturbances, elevated sedimentation rate, jaw claudication, and unexplained fever. This is best diagnosed by temporal artery biopsy. She should be referred to neurology for evaluation today. Question: 5- What recommendation should be made to an older adult who is diagnosed with mild dementia? Driving will probably not increase yo ur risk of an accident. The healthcare provider should recommend that the patient stop driving today. The healthcare provider should recommend assessment of driving to determine risk of an accident. Correct The patient may continue to drive as long as h e feels comfortable. Explanation: Dementia independently increases the risk of motor vehicle accident if the patient drives. The healthcare provider should discuss this with the patient and a family member, if a family member is present during the older a dult’s evaluation. Depending on the degree of impairment, the healthcare provider could recommend stopping driving, or recommend that an assessment be done. The assessment is usually completed by either an occupational or physical therapist or someone trai ned to assess this. Question: 6- A person with 20/60 vision: is legally blind. will have difficulty reading a newspaper. will be unable to see the big “E” on the eye chart. has better vision than someone with 20/80 vision. Correct Explanation: Using the Snellen nomenclature for describing visual acuity (example 20/80), the first number represents the test distance. In most cases this is 20 feet. The second number represents the distance at which the average eye can see the letters on a specific line o f the chart. In other words, the examinee can see at 20 feet what an average eye (20/20) can see at 80 feet. 20/80 is a measure of distant vision, not near vision such as reading a newspaper. The big “E” represents 20/200 vision. 20/200 is considered legal ly blind by most standards. (Mientras mas alto sea el segundo numero el paciente ve menos) Question: 7- A patient reports a history of transient ischemic attack (TIA) 6 months ago. His daily