(Test Bank) Biological Science, Canadian Edition Biology And The Tree Of Life

Freeman Et Al., 2

Biology

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2nd Edition

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Author(s): Freeman Et Al.

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Biological Science, Canadian Edition., 2e (Freeman et al.) Chapter 1 Biology and the Tree of Life 1) The pattern component of the cell theory claims that all organisms consist of cells. A) true B) false Answer: A Reference: Section 1.1 Bloom's Level: Remembering LOs: Chp1 -2. Describe the two components of the cell theory. 2) How does a scientific theory differ from a scientific hypothesis? A) There is no difference —the terms are interchangeable. B) A theory is an explanation for a very general phenomenon or observation; hypotheses treat more specific observations. C) A hypothesis is an explanation for a very general phenomenon; theories treat more specific issues. D) Theories define scientific laws; hypotheses are used to set up experiments. Answer: B Reference: Section 1.1 Bloom's Level: Comprehension LOs: Chp1 -2. Describe the two components of the cell theory. 3) Algae in the genus Caulerpa typically grow to a length of over half a meter and have structures similar to stems, leaves, and roots. Reproduction occurs when adults produce sperm and eggs that fuse to form offspring. Each adult Caulerpa , however, consists of just a single cell. Which of the following statements is true? A) Caulerpa violate the pattern component of the cell theory —that all organisms consist of cells. B) Caulerpa violate the process component of the cell theory —that all cells come from preexisting cells. C) Caulerpa violate both the pattern and process components of the cell theory. D) The existence of Caulerpa is consistent with the cell theory. Answer: D Reference: Section 1.1 Bloom's Level: Comprehension LOs: Chp1 -2. Describe the two components of the cell theory. 4) Which statement about spontaneous generation is FALSE? A) Pasteur demonstrated that it does not occur under normal laboratory conditions. B) It apparently occurred at least once –when life on Earth began. C) It occurs every time a new species evolves from a preexisting species. D) It addresses the formation of living cells from previously nonliving material. Answer: C Reference: Section 1.1 Bloom's Level: Remembering LOs: Chp1 -2. Describe the two components of the cell theory. 5) Recall Pasteur' s experiment on spontaneous generation. Originally, he used sealed and unsealed flasks instead of swan -necked and unsealed flasks. Critics claimed that the experiment was inconclusive. Which of the following criticisms would be addressed by using a swan -necked flask instead of the sealed flask? A) The broth was heated too intensively. B) There had not been enough time for spontaneous generation to occur. C) Fresh air is required for spontaneous generation. D) The broth was not nutritious enough. Answer: C Reference: Section 1.1 Bloom's Level: Comprehension/Applying LOs: Chp1 -2. Describe the two components of the cell theory. 6) Which of the following is the best example of a heritable variation? A) skin cancer B) amputation C) red hair D) love for music Answer: C Reference: Section 1.2 Bloom's Level: Comprehension LOs: Chp1 -1. Name five fundamental characteristics shared by all living organisms. 7) How does artificial selection differ from natural selection? A) Artificial selection occurs only in computer simulations, not with actual organisms. B) Artificial selection is based on conscious choices by humans. C) Artificial selection occurs only with plants. D) Artificial selection is not based on heritable variation, but on new mutations. Answer: B Reference: Section 1.2 Bloom's Level: Comprehension LOs: Chp1 -3. Briefly explain the theory of natural selection, and clarify the two conditions that are necessary and sufficient for natural selection to bring about evolutionary change in a population. 8) Over the past several decades, natural selection has caused populations of Staphylococcus aureus (an infectious wound bacterium) to evolve resistance to most antibiotics. If antibiotic use were stopped, what would you predict would happen to these S. aureu s populations? A) They will go extinct without the antibiotic. B) The populations will begin colonizing new environments. C) The frequency of nonresistant forms will increase in these populations. D) The frequency of resistant forms will definitely increase in these populations. Answer: C Reference: Section 1.2 Bloom's Level: Applying LOs: Chp1 -3. Briefly explain the theory of natural selection, and clarify the two conditions that are necessary and sufficient for natural selection to bring about evolutionary change in a population. 9) Environments all over the world are changing as a result of global warming. Could this influence natural selection? A) No. The environment is always changing. Global warming is nothing new. B) Yes. Traits that help individuals produce more offspring in warmer environments will increase in frequency. C) No. The only change will be that species from hot environments will expand their ranges. D) Yes. Mutations occur more frequently in hot environments. Answer: B Reference: Section 1.2 Bloom's Level: Applying LOs: Chp1 -3. Briefly explain the theory of natural selection, and clarify the two conditions that are necessary and sufficient for natural selection to bring about evolutionary change in a population. 10) The "heat" in chili peppers is due to a molecule called capsaicin. Suppose you breed chili peppers that have low amounts of capsaicin over many generati ons in order to make them milder (have less capsaicin). What process is occurring? A) heritable variation B) environmental change C) natural selection D) artificial selection Answer: D Reference: Section 1.2 Bloom's Level: Comprehension/Remembering LOs: Chp1 -3. Briefly explain the theory of natural selection, and clarify the two conditions that are necessary and sufficient for natural selection to bring about evolutionary change in a population. 11) The "heat" in chili peppers is due to a molecule called capsaicin. Suppose you breed only the hottest chili peppers over many generations –predict the characteristics of the resulting individuals. A) larger fruits B) smaller fruits C) less capsaicin D) more capsaicin Answer: D Reference: Section 1.2 Bloom's Level: Applying LOs: Chp1 -3. Briefly explain the theory of natural selection, and clarify the two conditions that are necessary and sufficient for natural selection to bring about evolutionary change in a population. 12) Starting from the wild mustard Brassica oleracea , breeders have created the strains known as Brussel sprouts, broccoli, kale, and cabbage. Which of the following statements is supported by this observation? A) In this species, there is enough heritable variation to create a variety of features. B) Heritable variation is low–otherwise the wild strain would have different characteristics. C) Natural selection has not occurred very frequently in the wild populations. D) In this species, most of the variation present is due to differences in soil, nutrition, amount of sunlight, or other aspects of the environment. Answer: A Reference: Section 1.2 Bloom's Level: Applying LOs: Chp1 -3. Briefly explain the theory of natural selection, and clarify the two conditions that are necessary and sufficient for natural selection to bring about evolutionary change in a population. 13) Which of the following best reflects a phylogenetic conclusion regarding chimpanzees and baboons? A) They are grouped together because they both have opposable thumbs. B) They are grouped together because they both feed their young breast milk. C) They are grouped together because they have a common ancestor in recent history. D) They are grouped together because they live in similar habitats. Answer: C Reference: Section 1.3 Bloom's Level: Remembering LOs: Chp1 -4. Read a phylogenetic tree, and understand the role of similarities and differences in constructing phylogenetic trees. 14) One aspect of Darwin's theory of natural selection is that adaptations not useful to fitness are lost faster if they have a greater cost. With this in mind, which of the following explanation is most likely true? A) Our little toe is not going away in the near future. B) The human appendix must currently serve an essential function or it would not be in our bodies. C) It is a mystery why we do not have tails. D) Humans are relatively hairless because we look better without hair. Answer: A Reference: Section 1.3 Bloom's Level: Applying LOs: Chp1 -3. Briefly explain the theory of natural selection, and clarify the two conditions that are necessary and sufficient for natural selection to bring about evolutionary change in a population. 15) Many phylogenetic trees are based on DNA sequence similarities. What is the practical result of this similarity? A) Closely related species will not look similar to each other. B) Artificial selection can bring closely related species even closer to each other. C) Species with very similar DNA will have similar structures, enzymes, and appearance. D) Mitochondrial DNA might be different from nuclear DNA. Answer: C Reference: Section 1.3 Bloom's Level: Comprehension LOs: Chp1 -4. Read a phylogenetic tree, and understand the role of similarities and differences in constructing phylogenetic trees. 16) Which of the following would not be a good reason for studying SSU RNA to understand the major branches in the evolutionary history of life? A) This molecule is found in every species. B) It is passed on through evolutionary history with only minor modifications. C) It is a necessary part of the cellular machinery for reproduction and other purposes. D) It mutates very frequently. Answer: D Reference: Section 1.3 Bloom's Level: Comprehension LOs: Chp1 -4. Read a phylogenetic tree, and understand the role of similarities and differences in constructing phylogenetic trees. 17) In the Linnaean classification system, which taxon would generally include the largest number of species? A) family B) phylum C) order D) genus Answer: B Reference: Section 1.3 Bloom's Level: Remembering LOs: Chp1 -4. Read a phylogenetic tree, and understand the role of similarities and differences in constructing phylogenetic trees. 18) Why did the five -kingdom system of classification fall out of favor? A) It was too complex —Linnaeus' original two-kingdom system was more useful. B) It was too difficult to distinguish plants from fungi and animals from protistans. C) There were too few monerans to justify their classification at the kingdom level. D) It did not reflect the actual evolutionary relationships among organisms very well. Answer: D Reference: Section 1.3 Bloom's Level: Remembering LOs: Chp1 -4. Read a phylogenetic tree, and understand the role of similarities and differences in constructing phylogenetic trees. 19) What do the nodes and branch points on a phylogenetic tree represent? A) species B) new kingdoms or domains C) ancestral groups that split into two descendant groups D) groups that got new names Answer: C Reference: Section 1.3 Bloom's Level: Remembering LOs: Chp1 -4. Read a phylogenetic tree, and understand the role of similarities and differences in constructing phylogenetic trees. 20) On an evolutionary tree, any group that includes a common ancestor and all of its descendants is called monophyletic ("one -tribe"). Draw the tree for Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukar ya. Are prokaryotes monophyletic? A) yes B) no Answer: B Explanation: B) This is an important and sometimes difficult -to-grasp concept that can be emphasized by class discussion. Reference: Section 1.3 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Analyzing LOs: Chp1 -4. Read a phylogenetic tree, and understand the role of similarities and differences in constructing phylogenetic trees. 21) On an evolutionary tree, any group that includes a common ancestor and all of its descendants is called monophyletic ("one -tribe" ). Draw the tree for Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya that we think best represents the current data. According to this tree, are all organisms alive today monophyletic? A) yes B) no Answer: A Explanation: A) This is an important and sometimes difficult -to-grasp concept that can be emphasized by class discussion. Reference: Section 1.3 Bloom's Level: Remembering/Analyzing LOs: Chp1 -4. Read a phylogenetic tree, and understand the role of similarities and differences in constructing phylogenetic trees. 22) On the tree of life, the branch leading to animals is closer to fungi than it is to the branch leading to land plants. Which of the following statements is correct? A) Animals and plants do not have a common ancestor. B) Animals and land plants are more closely related to each other than either is to fungi. C) Fungi and animals do not have a common ancestor. D) Animals and fungi are more closely related to each other than animals are to land plants. Answer: D Reference: Section 1.3 Bloom's Level: Remembering LOs: Chp1 -4. Read a phylogenetic tree, and understand the role of similarities and differences in constructing phylogenetic trees. 23) On the tree of life, branches that lead to several groups of green algae branch off from the one that leads to land plants. Which one of the following statements is correct? A) Green algae and land plants are not related. B) Green algae are very closely related to the fungi. C) Land plants appeared first in the fossil record. D) Land plants and algae have a common ancestor. Answer: D Reference: Section 1.3 Bloom's Level: Remembering LOs: Chp1 -4. Read a phylogenetic tree, and understand the role of similarities and differences in constructing phylogenetic trees. 24) Louis Pasteur's experiment had a good design because A) simple equipment was used. B) a major question, spontaneous generation, was tested. C) the possible outcomes led to distinct, unambiguous conclusions. D) the experiment was a success. Answer: C Reference: Section 1.4 Bloom's Level: Remembering LOs: Chp1 -5. Describe what biologists do—that is, how they approach problems and why they do experiments. 25) Which of the following observations lead to the conclusion that the food competition hypothesis for giraffe neck length might not be correct? A) In the populations studied to date, giraffes never feed high in trees. B) In certain populations at certain times of year, only male giraffes feed high in trees. C) Male and female giraffes spend most of their time feeding low in trees. D) Giraffes rarely die of starvation, so food availability is unimportant. Answer: C Reference: Section 1.4 Bloom's Level: Remembering LOs: Chp1 -3. Briefly explain the theory of natural selection, and clarify the two conditions that are necessary and sufficient for natural selection to bring about evolutionary change in a population. 26) Which one of the following predictions follows from the sexual selection hypothesis for why giraffes have long necks? A) In contests over females, the best-nourished male should always, or almost always, win. B) In contests over females, the male with the longest neck should have an advantage over the other males. C) In natural populations, female neck length should decline over time. D) Young males that are given extra amounts of high-quality food should grow particularly long, strong necks. Answer: B Reference: Section 1.4 Bloom's Level: Comprehension LOs: Chp1 -3. Briefly explain the theory of natural selection, and clarify the two conditions that are necessary and sufficient for natural selection to bring about evolutionary change in a population. 27) Recall the chili pepper experiment that tested whether capsaicin acts as a deterrent to predators. What eating habits were predicted for the curve —billed thrasher –a known seed disperser? A) The thrasher was predicted to eat both mild and hot chilies. B) The thrasher was predicted to eat only the mild chilies. C) The thrasher was predicted to eat only the hot chilies. D) The thrasher was predicted to not eat any of the chilies. Answer: A Reference: Section 1.4 Bloom's Level: Remembering LOs: Chp1 -3. Briefly explain the theory of natural selection, and clarify the two conditions that are necessary and sufficient for natural selection to bring about evolutionary change in a population. 28) Which of the following is a powerful way to test a hypothesis? A) Incorporate the hypo thesis into a more general theory. B) Formulate a competing or alternative hypothesis. C) Formulate a null hypothesis. D) Perform an experiment that tests a prediction that follows from the hypothesis. Answer: D Explanation: D) This is an excellent in-class question to stimulate discussion on the relevance of science. Reference: Section 1.4 Bloom's Level: Remembering LOs: Chp1 -5. Describe what biologists do—that is, how they approach problems and why they do experiments. 29) For many years, no one bothered to test the food-competition hypothesis for why giraffes have long necks. Why? A) Technically it was much too difficult until recently. B) The hypothesis was so plausible that no one thought to question it. C) They tried, but the results were inconclusive. D) The hypothesis doesn't make any clear predictions that can be tested. Answer: B Explanation: B) This question, along with some obvious permutations, would make good classroom discussions. Reference: Section 1.4 Bloom's Level: Remembering LOs: Chp1 -3. Brief ly explain the theory of natural selection, and clarify the two conditions that are necessary and sufficient for natural selection to bring about evolutionary change in a population. 30) A friend of yours calls to say that his car would not start this morning. He asks for your help. You say that you think the battery must be dead, and that if so, then jump -starting the car from a good battery will solve the problem. In doing so, you are A) only stating a hypothesis for why the car won't start. B) searching for observations that might inspire a hypothesis for why the car won't start. C) stating both a specific hypothesis about why the car won't start and a prediction of the hypothesis. D) performing an experimental test of a hypothesis for why the car won't start. Answer: C Explanation: C) This question, along with some obvious permutations, would make good classroom discussions. Reference: Section 1.4 Bloom's Level: Applying LOs: Chp1 -5. Describe what biologists do—that is, how they approach problems and why they do experiments. Use the following information when answering the corresponding question(s). In 1668, Francesco Redi did a series of experiments on spontaneous generation. He began by putting similar pieces of meat into eight identical jars. Four jars were left open to the air, and four were sealed. He then did the same experiment with one variation: Instead of sealing four of the jars completely, he covered them with gauze (the gauze excluded flies while allowing the meat to be exposed to air). I n both experiments, he monitored the jars and recorded whether or not maggots (young flies) appeared in the meat. 31) What hypothesis was being tested in the initial experiment with open versus sealed jars? A) Spontaneous generation is more likely during the long days of summer. B) The type of meat used affects the likelihood of spontaneous generation. C) Maggots do not arise spontaneously, but from eggs laid by adult flies. D) Spontaneous generation can occur only if meat is surrounded by air. Answer: C Explanation: C) These questions pertaining to the Redi experiments could be used together or individually on an exam. Reference: Section 1.4 Bloom's Level: Remembering LOs: Chp1 -5. Describe what biologists do—that is, how they approach problems and why they do experime nts. 32) In both experiments, flies appeared in all of the open jars and only in the open jars. Which one of the following statements is correct? A) The experiment was inconclusive because Redi used only one kind of meat. B) The experiment was inconclusive because it did not run long enough. C) The experiment supports the hypothesis that spontaneous generation occurs in rotting meat. D) The experiment supports the hypothesis that maggots arise only from eggs laid by adult flies. Answer: D Explanation: D) These questions pertaining to the Redi experiments could be used together or individually on an exam. Reference: Section 1.4 Bloom's Level: Comprehension LOs: Chp1 -5. Describe what biologists do—that is, how they approach problems and why they do experiments. 33) Why was it important that Redi replicate each treatment four times in each experiment? A) to reduce the likelihood of getting an accidental result B) to practice his technique and make sure the experiment was done correctly C) to make sure that there was enough meat to attract flies D) to make sure that he made efficient use of his lab equipment Answer: A Explanation: A) These questions pertaining to the Redi experiments could be used together or individually on an exam. Reference: Section 1.4 Bloom's Level: Comprehension LOs: Chp1 -5. Describe what biologists do—that is, how they approach problems and why they do experiments. 34) If the history of Earth is condensed to a year, which choice is closest to how long our species has been present? A) three days B) two hours C) eleven minutes D) four seconds Answer: C Reference: Section 1.4 Bloom's Level: Remembering LOs: Chp1 -5. Describe what biologists do—that is, how they approach problems and why they do experiments. 35) Fireflies are nocturnal beetles that emit flashes of light to attract mates. A scientist studying the firefly population over the past 5 years observes that the firefly population has declined significantly as the area that she has been studying has become more developed (more buildings). The sci entist proposes a series of hypotheses to explain the decline. Which of her hypotheses is most likely to be correct? A) Due to excess amounts of artificial light, the firefly is now active during the day; the scientist is trying to study them at the wrong time leading to incorrect counts of the number of fireflies. B) Excess amounts of artificial light prevent the female fireflies from seeing the male's flashing mating signal. C) Excess amounts of artificial light resulted in the evolution of a different mechanism in the male firefly for attracting females and the females no longer recognize this signal. Answer: B Reference: Section 1.5 Bloom's Level: Comprehension/Applying LOs: Chp1 -5. Describe what biologists do —that is, how they approach problems and why they do experiments. Biological Science, Canadian Edition., 2e (Freeman et al.) Chapter 2 Water and Carbon: The Chemical Basis of Life 1) How many electrons are involved in a single covalent bond? A) one B) two C) three D) four Answer: B Reference: Section 2.1 Bloom's Level: Remembering LOs: Chp2 -1. Explain how and why atoms interact to form molecules. Sketch examples of how electrons are shared in nonpolar covalent bonds, polar covalent bonds, and ionic bonds. 2) How many electrons are involved in a double covalent bond? A) one B) two C) three D) four Answer: D Reference: Section 2.1 Bloom's Level: Remembering LOs: Chp2 -1. Explain how and why atoms interact to form molecules. Sketch examples of how electrons are shared in nonpolar covalent bonds, polar covalent bonds, and ionic bonds. 3) How many electrons are involved in a triple covalent bond? A) two B) three C) six D) nine Answer: C Reference: Section 2.1 Bloom's Level: Remembering LOs: Chp2 -1. Explain how and why atoms interact to form molecules. Sketch examples of how electrons are shared in nonpolar covalent bonds, polar covalent bonds, and ionic bonds. 4) If an atom has a charge of +1, which of the following must be true? A) It has two more protons than neutrons. B) It has the same number of protons as electrons. C) It has one more electron than it has protons. D) It has one more proton than it has electrons. Answer: D Reference: Section 2.1 Bloom's Level: Comprehension LOs: Chp2 -1. Explain how and why atoms interact to form molecules. Sketch examples of how electrons are shared in nonpolar covalent bonds, polar covalent bonds, and ionic bonds. 5) If an atom has a charge of -2, which of the following must be true? A) It has two more electrons than protons. B) It has two more protons than electrons. C) It has two more protons than neutrons. D) It has two more neutrons than electrons. Answer: A Reference: Section 2.1 Bloom's Level: Comprehension LOs: Chp2 -1. Explain how and why atoms interact to form molecules. Sketch examples of how electrons are shared in nonpolar covalent bonds, polar covalent bonds, and ionic bonds. 6) If an atom is electrically neutral, which of the following must be true? A) It has the same number of protons as neutrons. B) It has the same number of protons as electrons. C) It has the same number of neutrons as electrons. D) It has at least one more electron than it has protons. Answer: B Reference: Section 2.1 Bloom's Level: Comprehension LOs: Chp2 -1. Explain how and why atoms interact to form molecules. Sketch examples of how electrons are shared in nonpolar covalent bonds, polar covalent bonds, and ionic bonds. 7) An atom has six electrons in its valence shell. How many single covalent bonds would you expect it to form in most circumstances? A) one B) two C) three D) six Answer: B Reference: Section 2.1 Bloom's Level: Comprehension LOs: Chp2 -1. Explain how and why atoms interact to form molecules. Sketch examples of how electrons are shared in nonpolar covalent bonds, polar covalent bonds, and ionic bonds. 8) An atom has four electrons in its valence shell. What types of covalent bonds is it capable of forming? A) single, double, or triple B) single and double only C) four single bonds only D) two double bonds only Answer: A Reference: Section 2.1 Bloom's Level: Comprehension LOs: Chp2 -1. Explain how and why atoms interact to form molecules. Sketch examples of how electrons are shared in nonpolar covalent bonds, polar covalent bonds, and ionic bonds.