(Test Bank) SOUTH UNIVERSITY NSG 6001 COMPLETE GUIDE BEST FOR NURSING STUDENTS

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Test Bank for SOUTH UNIVERSITY NSG 6001 COMPLETE GUIDE BEST FOR NURSING STUDENTS, The downloadable file consists of 157 pages, and the total size of the file is 0.79 MB. Purchase now only for highly discounted price.

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NSG 6001 COMPLETE TEST BANK Health Promotion MULTIPLE CHOICES 1. Which of the following is a primary prevention measure for a 76-year-old man newly diagnosed with a testosterone deficiency? A. Calcium supplementation B. Testicular self-examination C. Bone density test D. Digital rectal examination ANS: A PTS: 1 2. Which of the following is an example of secondary prevention in a 50-year-old woman? A. Yearly mammogram B. Low animal -fat diet C. Use of seat belt D. Daily application of sunscreen ANS: A PTS: 1 3. Which of the following is an example of tertiary prevention in a patient with chronic renal failure? A. Fluid restriction B. Hemodialysis 4 days a week C. High -protein diet D. Maintenance of blood pressure at 120/80 ANS: B PTS: 1 4. Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention? A. Primary B. Secondary C. Tertiary D. Quaternary ANS: A PTS: 1 5. The nurse is speaking to a patient regarding endemic diseases. Which of these choices describes an endemic statistic? A. The typical incidence of influenza in a country B. The surprise outbreak of malaria in new regions C. Higher levels of Ebola in a country when compared to the previous year D. Abnormal outbreak of measles in pockets of a country ANS: A PTS: 1 6. The nurse is reviewing old and current trends in disease history. Which of these would be considered an example of a sporadic outbreak? A. The number of people diagnosed with rabies virus in 2017 B. The number of people diagnosed with chlamydia in Texas over a 1-month period C. The number influenza cases diagnosed from 1918 to 1919 D. The number of common cold cases diagnosed in Washington between October 2016 and March 2017 ANS: A PTS: 1 7. Which accurately defines incidence rate? A. The number of old cases of a disease at a point in time B. The number of cases of a disease at a point in time divided by the percen tage of the population at a point in time C. The number of total cases of a disease total diagnosed at a point in time D. The number of new cases of a disease diagnosed at a point in time ANS: D PTS: 1 8. What describes a pandemic? A. An event more than epidemic magnitude affecting a single community or country over a long period of time B. An event of epidemic magnitude affecting a single community or country in a short period of time C. An event of epidemic magnitude affecting multiple communities and countries in a short period of time D. An event less than epidemic magnitude affecting multiple communities and countries over a long period of time ANS: C PTS: 1 9. Which test of health literacy can be completed quickly and provide results comparable to more time-consuming tests? A. Test of Functional Health Literacy in Adults (TOFHLA) B. Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ -9) C. Rapid Estimate of Adult Literacy in Medicine -Short Form (REALM -SF) D. Newest Vital Sign (NVS) ANS: D PTS: 1 10. The nurse is working with a 65-year-old patient who was recently diagnosed with hypertension. The patient is concerned about their optimal health with their new diagnosis. Which nursing action is necessary for health promotion with the patient? A. Discussing appropriate stress management techniques B. Sharing with the patient how to increase sodium consumption C. Discussing with the patient exercises that increase heart rate D. Emphasizing the importance of avoiding flu vaccinations ANS: A PTS: 1 Evidence -Based Care MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What is the goal of nursing research? A. Make decisions regarding nursing education based on published literature B. Determine topics that could develop nursing knowledge C. Gather information from published literature to make decisions about application to clinical practice D. Conduct studies to develop a body of nursing knowledge ANS: D PTS: 1 2. Which is the most important question to ask in evidence -based practice? A. What findings constitute evidence? B. How will th e findings be used? C. Is this a randomized controlled trial? D. What theory is being utilized? ANS: B PTS: 1 3. Nursing research should be utilized by: A. Nurses at the bedside B. Advanced practice nurses C. Nurse researchers D. Nurses at all levels of practice ANS: D PTS: 1 4. A clinical guideline may be found useful if the guideline was: A. Published 2 years ago B. Created using one group C. Authored by a relatively unknown source D. Funded by an anonymous source ANS: A PTS: 1 5. Practice guidelines are designed to: A. Be inflexible B. Be utilized in every circumstance C. Provide a reference point for decision making D. Be created by a professional organization to guide the practice of a profession ANS: C PTS: 1 6. Which of the following is an example of determining whether a crucial element of a guideline is applicable to your patients? A. There are no intended specific patients in the guideline. B. You are a primary -care provider and the guidelines were written for primary -care providers. C. Your patients have a much lower prevalence of a condition than the patients in the guideline. D. You are a pediatric oncologist and the guidelines were written for geriatric specialists. ANS: B PTS: 1 7. Which of the following would be considered the research design for Level I evidence? A. Single, well-designed, randomized clinical trial B. Systematic review of randomized clinical trial studies C. Well -designed controlled trials without randomization D. Systematic reviews of descriptive or qualitative studies ANS: B PTS: 1 8. Which of the following would be considered the research design for Level II evidence? A. Single descriptive or qualitative study B. Well -designed case control or cohort studies C. Single, well-designed, randomized clinical trial D. Systematic review of randomized clinical trial studies ANS: C PTS: 1 9. Which of the following would be considered the research design for Level III evidence? A. Well -designed controlled trials without randomization B. Systematic reviews of descriptive or qualitative studies C. Systematic review of randomized clinical trial studies D. Opinion of authorities and expert committees ANS: A PTS: 1 10. Which of the following would be considered the research design for Level IV evidence? A. Single descriptive or qualitative study B. Opinion of authorities and expert committees C. Systematic review of randomized clinical trial studies D. Well -designed controlled trials without randomization ANS: D PTS: 1 11. Which of the following would be considered the research design for Level V evidence? A. Systematic review of randomized clinical trial studies B. Well -designed controlled trials without randomization C. Systematic reviews of descriptive or qualitative studies D. Single descriptive or qualitative study ANS: C PTS: 1 12. Which of the following would be considered the research design for Level VI evidence? A. Systematic reviews of descriptive or qualitative studies B. Opinion of authorities and expert committees C. Well -designed case control or cohort studies D. Single descriptive or qualitative study ANS: C PTS: 1 13. Which of the following would be considered the research design for Level VII evidence? A. Well -designed controlled trials without randomization B. Opinion of authorities and expert committees C. Well -designed case control or cohort studies D. Single descriptive or qualitative study ANS: B PTS: 1 Neurological Problems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which statement about confusion is true? A. Confusion is a disease process. B. Confusion is always temporary. C. Age is a reliable predictor of confusion. D. Polypharmacy is a major contributor to confusion in older adults. ANS: D PTS: 1 2. Which of the following indicates a diagnosis of dementia? A. Onset after an infection B. Abrupt onset over a week C. Difficulty with long-term memory D. Hard time finding words ANS: D PTS: 1 3. Which of the following aspects of the patient history is a hallmark of delirium? A. Patient has chronic kidney disease. B. Patient has had aphasia for a year. C. Patient has diabetes mellitus. D. Patient has been getting lost driving home. ANS: A PTS: 1 4. Which of the following may trigger migraines? A. Taking an ibuprofen for muscle pain B. A cup of coffee with regular sweetener C. A glass of merlot wine D. Drinking a cup of green tea ANS: C PTS: 1 5. Sondra’s peripheral vestibular disease causes dizziness and vertigo. Which of the following medications will help to decrease edema in the labyrinth of the ear? A. Meclizine B. Diphenhydramine C. Diamox D. Promethazine ANS: C PTS: 1 6. The hallmark of an absence seizure is: A. No activity at all B. A blank stare C. Urine is usually voided involuntarily D. The attack usually lasts several minutes ANS: B PTS: 1 7. Which of the following persons fits the classic description of a patient with multiple sclerosis (MS)? A. A teenage male B. A 65-year-old male C. A 25-year-old female D. A 60-year-old female ANS: C PTS: 1 8. Which of the following is a specific test to MS? A. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) B. Computed tomography (CT) scan C. A lumbar puncture D. There is no specific test ANS: D PTS: 1 9. Over the course of 3 years, a patient has had two MS flares. The patient’s primary complaints during the episodes are bilateral tingling and pain in their legs, depression, and numbness in their right hand with complete recovery in between occurrences. Which MS classification fits their disease process? A. Clinically isolated syndrome B. Relapsing -remitt ing C. Primary progressive D. Secondary progressive ANS: B PTS: 1 10. A patient with MS is complaining of new-onset “electric tingling” in both their arms. Which medication specifically treats these acute exacerbations? A. Lemtrada B. Aubagio C. Zanaflex D. Depo -Medrol ANS: D PTS: 1 11. Which of the following is a risk factor for developing Alzheimer’s disease? A. Having a master’s or doctoral degree B. Patient is a physician C. Patient has Down’s syndrome D. History of neurological disease ANS: C PTS: 1 12. Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis? A. Cholinesterase inhibitors B. Anxiolytics C. Antidepressants D. Atypical antipsychotics ANS: A PTS: 1 13. The health -care provider is treating a patient who was hit in the head with a frying pan. Which of the following should the provider suspect? A. Intraparenchymal hemorrhage B. Subdural hematoma C. Epidural hematoma D. Subarachnoid hematoma ANS: B PTS: 1 14. Which hematoma occurs along the temporal cranial wall and results from tears in the middle meningeal artery? A. Epidural hematoma B. Subdural hematoma C. Subarachnoid hematoma D. Intraparenchymal hemorrhage ANS: A PTS: 1 15. Which of the following must be completed prior to administering TPA (tissue plasminogen activator)? A. Full-body MRI B. Head x-ray C. Head CT D. Head MRI ANS: C PTS: 1 16. Which cranial nerve is affected in a patient with a cerebrovascular accident who has difficulty chewing? A. CN V B. CN VII C. CN IX D. CN X ANS: A PTS: 1 17. Which of the following has been linked to a delay in treatment for stroke? A. Patient has stroke symptoms at work. B. Patient experiences stroke during the day. C. Patient lives with a family member. D. Patient calls their primary -care provider (PCP) instead of 911 at sign of stroke. ANS: D PTS: 1 18. When a patient has a carotid bruit, which of the following should the PCP gather from the patient history? A. History of hemophilia B. History of peripheral vascular occlusive disease C. History of seizure disorder D. History of sickle cell disease ANS: B PTS: 1 19. Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache? A. A female in her reproductive years B. A 40-year-old African American male C. A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily D. A 45-year-old male awakened at night ANS: D PTS: 1 20. Which patient is most likely to have myasthenia gravis (MG)? A. A 75-year-old Caucasian woman B. A 31-year-old Hispanic woman C. A 55-year-old African American male D. A 10-year-old Middle Eastern male ANS: B PTS: 1 21. Inattention and a sleep –wake cycle disturbance are the hallmark symptoms of: A. Dementia B. Alzheimer’s disease C. Parkinson’s disease D. Delirium ANS: D PTS: 1 22. Which type of meningitis is more benign, self-limiting, and caused primarily by a virus? A. Purulent meningitis B. Chronic meningitis C. Aseptic meningitis D. Herpes meningitis ANS: C PTS: 1 23. A patient has been diagnosed with meningitis caused by a Streptococcus pneumoniae infection. Which of the following treatments would be appropriate? A. Cefotaxime B. Isoniazid C. Acyclovir D. Amphotericin ANS: A PTS: 1 24. Which of the following should be started promptly if viral encephalitis is suspected? A. Oral amoxicillin B. IV acyclovir C. IV ampicillin D. Oral acyclovir ANS: B PTS: 1 25. What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster? A. A stabbing pain on one small area of the body B. A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body C. A pain that is worse upon awakening D. A lesion on the exterior ear canal ANS: B PTS: 1 26. Which patient is most likely to be diagnosed with Guillain -Barré syndrome? A. A 6-month -old infant B. A 30-year-old man C. A 72-year-old woman D. A 50-year-old man ANS: C PTS: 1 27. Gabby, aged 22, has Bell’s palsy on the right side of her face. Her mouth is distorted, and she is concerned about permanent paralysis and pain. What do you tell her? A. “Most patients have complete recovery in 3 to 6 months.” B. “Unfortunately, you’ll probably have a small amount of residual damage.” C. “Don’t worry, I’ll take care of everything.” D. “You may have a few more episodes over the course of your lifetime but no permanent damage.” ANS: A PTS: 1 28. A patient is presenting with chorea (dance -like movements). Which of the following diseases might the patient have? A. Dementia B. Parkinson’s disease C. Wilson’s disease D. Huntington’s disease ANS: D PTS: 1 29. Which of the following signs would a health -care provider expect to see in a patient with Parkinson -plus disorder? A. Resting tremor B. Bradykinesia C. Rigidity D. Postural instability ANS: D PTS: 1 30. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of a migraine? A. Light sensitivity B. Nonpulsatile pain C. Nasal stuffiness D. Bandlike pain ANS: A PTS: 1 31. Carotid endarterectomy should be considered only for symptomatic patients with greater than what percentage of stenosis? A. Greater than 25% B. Greater than 50% C. Greater than 75% D. Only for 100% occlusion ANS: B PTS: 1 32. Which of the following activities is part of the functional activities questionnaire? A. Asking the patient to unravel a Rubik’s cube B. Determining if the patient can drive on the highway C. Asking the patient about a news event from the current week D. Seeing if the patient can keep his or her home clean ANS: C PTS: 1 33. About 90% of all headaches are: A. Tension B. Migraine C. Cluster D. Without pathological cause ANS: D PTS: 1 34. Which statement is true regarding driving and patients with a seizure disorder? A. Once diagnosed with a seizure disorder, patients must never drive again. B. After being seizure free for 6 months, patients may drive. C. Each state has different laws governing driving for individuals with a seizure disorder. D. These persons may drive but never alone. ANS: C PTS: 1 35. Julie has relapsing -remitting muscular sclerosis. She has not had a good response to interferon. Which medication might help given IV once a month? A. Glatiramer acetate B. Natalizumab C. Fingolimod D. Glucocorticoids ANS: B PTS: 1 36. The “freezing phenomenon” is a cardinal feature of: A. Parkinson’s disease B. Alzheimer’s disease C. A cerebrovascular accident (CVA) D. Bell’s palsy ANS: A PTS: 1 37. A ratchet -like rhythmic contraction, especially in the hand, during passive stretching is known as: A. Spinothalamic dysfunction B. Ratcheting C. Cogwheeling D. Hand tremors ANS: C PTS: 1 38. Which condition is characterized by the impaired ability to learn new information along with a cognitive disturbance in either language, function, or perception? A. Guillain -Barré syndrome B. Parkinson’s disease C. Alzheimer’s disease D. Delirium ANS: C PTS: 1 39. A score of 12 to 24 on this test indicates intermediate Alzheimer’s disease: A. SLUMS B. MoCA C. FAST D. MMSE ANS: D PTS: 1 40. IV thrombolytic therapy following an ischemic CVA should be given within how many hours of symptom onset? A. 1 hour B. 3 hours C. 6 hours D. 12 hours ANS: B PTS: 1 41. When administered at the beginning of an attack, oxygen therapy may help this kind of headache? A. Tension B. Migraine C. Cluster D. Stress ANS: C PTS: 1 Skin Problems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Simon presents with alopecia areata with well-circumscribed patches of hair loss on the crown of his head. How do you respond when he asks you the cause? A. “You must be under a lot of stress lately.” B. “It is hereditary. Did your father experience this also?” C. “The cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunological mechanism.” D. “We’ll have to do some tests.” ANS: C PTS: 1 2. Gillian presents with a sudden onset of 102°F fever, emesis, tingling in the hands and feet, fatigue, and weakness. What is the potential diagnosis of this presentation? A. Urticaria B. Toxic shock syndrome C. Scabies D. Pediculosis ANS: B PTS: 1 3. Which of the following describes a bulla? A. Results from a defect in the dermoepidermal junction B. Interfaces between the epidermis and the dermis C. A small crusty plaque D. A dime -sized purulent pustule on the buttocks ANS: A PTS: 1 4. An example of ecchymosis is: A. A hematoma B. A keloid C. A bruise D. A patch ANS: C PTS: 1 5. Francine presents with a total loss of skin color in patchy areas of her body. What are the potential causes? A. Zidovudine B. Chlorpromazine C. Vitiligo D. Addison’s disease ANS: C PTS: 1 6. When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval -to-round shapes. What do you suspect they are? A. Spores B. Leukocytes C. Pseudohyphae D. Epithelial cells ANS: A PTS: 1 7. Your patient is in her second trimester of pregnancy and has a yeast infection. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment? A. Terbinafine 250 mg once daily × 12 weeks B. Noxafil 100 mg oral suspension × 2 daily C. Griseofulvin 500 mg once daily × 2 to 4 weeks D. Metronidazole 2% cream 5 g intravaginally × 7 days ANS: D PTS: 1 8. Tinea unguium is also known as: A. Onychomycosis B. Tinea versicolor C. Tinea manuum D. Tinea corporis ANS: A PTS: 1 9. Sally, age 25, presents with impetigo that has been diagnosed as infected with Staphylococcus . The clinical presentation is pruritic tender, red vesicles surrounded by erythema with a rash that is ulcerating. Her recent treatment has not been adequate. Which type of impetigo is this? A. Bullous impetigo B. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS) C. Nonbullous impetigo D. Ecthyma ANS: D PTS: 1 10. Mark has necrotizing fasciitis of his left lower extremity. Pressure on the skin reveals crepitus due to gas production by which anaerobic bacteria? A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Clostridium perfringens C. S. pyogenes D. Streptococcus ANS: B PTS: 1 11. When using the microscope for an intravaginal infection, you see something translucent and colorless. What do you suspect? A. A piece of hair or a thread B. Hyphae C. Leukocytes D. Spores ANS: B PTS: 1 12. What should be the initial management for a new wart? A. Tretinoin cream B. Liquid nitrogen cryotherapy C. Salicylic acid D. Watchful waiting ANS: D PTS: 1 13. Stacy has a verruca plana and she is using tretinoin cream. Which of the following is true? A. It should be applied at bedtime over the entire area that is affected. B. It should be applied twice daily for 1 week. C. It is not normal to have a fine scaling when using this medication. D. It is not normal to have erythema when using this medication. ANS: A PTS: 1 14. Of the following types of cellulitis, which is a streptococcal infection of the superficial layers of the skin that does not involve the subcutaneous layers? A. Necrotizing fasciitis B. Periorbital cellulitis C. Erysipelas D. “Flesh -eating” cellulitis ANS: C PTS: 1 15. Mandy presents with a cauliflower -like wart in her anogenital region. You suspect it was sexually transmitted and discuss that: A. HPV 16 and 18 usually cause anogenital warts. B. Penetrative intercourse is necessary to transmit anogenital warts. C. Anogenital warts are transmitted genital to genital. D. OTC home -based cryotherapy is a good choice for treatment. ANS: C PTS: 1 16. Jeffrey has atopic dermatitis. You are prescribing a low-dose topical corticosteroid for him. Which would be a good choice? A. Betamethasone dipropionate 0.05% B. Hydrocortisone base 2.5% C. Halcinonide 0.1% D. Desonide 0.05% ANS: B PTS: 1 17. Harvey has a rubbery, smooth, round mass on his chest that is compressible and has a soft-to- very-firm texture. What do you diagnose this as? A. A lipoma B. A nevus C. A skin tag D. A possible adenoma ANS: A PTS: 1 18. Which of the following statements is accurate when you are removing a seborrheic keratosis lesion using snip excision? A. Do not use lidocaine as it may potentiate bleeding. B. Pinch the skin taut together. C. Use gel foam to control bleeding. D. This should be performed by a dermatologist only. ANS: C PTS: 1 19. The “B” in the ABCDEs of assessing skin cancer represents: A. Biopsy B. Best practice C. Boundary D. Border irregularity ANS: D PTS: 1 20. Gary has been diagnosed with HSV -2 genital herpes and is wondering what to expect. Which of the following is a credible teaching point? A. HSV -1 genital herpes occurs more frequently than HSV -2 genital herpes. B. The HSV lesions will never occur near the initial infection site. C. Burning and tingling at the site of initial infection can signal recurrence. D. Each recurrent HSV infection will be worse than the initial infection. ANS: C PTS: 1 21. Eighty percent of men have noticeable hair loss by what age? A. 35 B. 50 C. 70 D. 85 ANS: D PTS: 1 22. Prevalence of psoriasis is highest in which group? A. Scandinavians B. African Americans C. Asians D. Native Americans ANS: A PTS: 1 23. The most common precancerous skin lesion found in Caucasians is: A. A skin tag B. Actinic keratosis C. A melanoma D. A basal cell lesion ANS: B PTS: 1 24. Ian, age 62, presents with a wide, diffuse area of erythematous skin on his lower left leg that is warm and tender to palpation. There is some edema involved. You suspect: A. Necrotizing fasciitis B. Kaposi’s sarcoma C. Cellulitis D. A diabetic ulcer ANS: C PTS: 1 25. Josh, aged 22, has tinea versicolor. Which description is the most likely for this condition? A. There are round, hypopigmented macules on his back. B. Josh has red papules on his face. C. There are crusted plaques in Josh’s groin area. D. There are white streaks on his neck. ANS: A PTS: 1 26. Tori is on systemic antifungals for a bad tinea infection. You are aware that the antifungals may cause: A. Renal failure B. Skin discoloration C. Breathing difficulties D. Hepatotoxicity ANS: D PTS: 1 27. Which scalp problem can be caused by a fever and certain drugs? A. Telogen effluvium (TE) B. Trichotillomania C. Psoriasis D. Alopecia areata ANS: A PTS: 1 28. Which of the following is a strong risk factor associated with increased melanoma risk? A. Patient had a 15 mm nevus. B. Patient has a history of multiple blistering sunburns in their teenage years. C. Patient’s uncle had melanoma. D. Patient is of African American descent. ANS: B PTS: 1 29. Which statement is true regarding chloasma, the “mask of pregnancy”? A. It is caused by a decrease in the melanocyte -stimulating hormone during pregnancy. B. This condition only occurs on the face. C. Exposure to sunlight will even out the discoloration. D. It is caused by increased levels of estrogen and progesterone. ANS: D PTS: 1 30. A patient presents with xerosis. What do you tell the patient about this condition? A. Daily hot baths can help to soothe the skin. B. Using a strong deodorant can improve the condition. C. It can be a side effect of depigmentation creams. D. It is uncommon in the elderly. ANS: C PTS: 1 31. Which medication used for scabies is safe for children 2 months and older? A. Permethrin cream B. Lindane C. Crotamiton lotion and cream D. Ivermectin ANS: A PTS: 1 32. Which of the following is an infraorbital fold skin manifestation in a patient with atopic dermatitis? A. Keratosis pilaris B. Dennie’s sign C. Keratoconus D. Pityriasis alba ANS: B PTS: 1 33. Which of the following statements about performing cryosurgery for actinic keratosis is true? A. It is better to slightly overfreeze the area, so you only have to do it once. B. Using liquid nitrogen, freeze each lesion for at least 30 seconds. C. Every lesion should be biopsied after using liquid nitrogen. D. The “freeze balls” should be approximately one-and-a-half times as wide as they are deep. ANS: D PTS: 1 34. Gerald presents with a very dark color on his right pinkie finger. What is the health -care provider’s next care step? A. Referral to a dermatologist for a nail biopsy B. Watchful waiting C. Discussing that the condition is benign and the patient can ignore it D. Follow up in 2 weeks to see if there is any change ANS: A PTS: 1 35. Which statement regarding necrotizing fasciitis is true? A. The hallmark of this infection is its slow and steady progression. B. Once the border of the infection is “established,” it does not spread. C. This is a medical emergency and gangrene can develop. D. The lesion is most dangerous, because it is painless. ANS: C PTS: 1 36. When staging a malignant melanoma using Clark’s levels, which level extends into the papillary dermis? A. Level I B. Level II C. Level III D. Level IV ANS: C PTS: 1 37. Which of these patients is most likely to have acne and resultant scarring? A. A 15-year-old Caucasian male B. A 17-year-old Hispanic female C. A 20-year-old Asian female D. A 21-year-old African American male ANS: B PTS: 1 38. A 20 -year-old Hispanic male presents with multiple noninflammatory comedones on his chest and back with four small papules on his right upper arm. Which diagnosis is accurate? A. Mild acne B. Moderate acne C. Severe acne D. Nodulocystic acne ANS: A PTS: 1 39. A 40-year-old woman presents with inflammatory papules on her face, facial flushing when she drinks a glass of wine, telangiectasias, and dry eyes. Which of the following conditions is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acne vulgaris B. Hot tub folliculitis C. Rosacea D. Perioral dermatitis ANS: C PTS: 1 40. Rachel is a patient complaining of a pruritic erythematous rash on her face and hands that became apparent this morning. Which of the following questions would help determine whether she has contact dermatitis? A. “Do you have a history of itchy rashes?” B. “Do you have any food allergies?” C. “Do you have a history of rosacea?” D. “Have you used any new face wash or soap?” ANS: D PTS: 1 41. A 70 -year-old patient presents with a poorly defined, pink, scaling rash on his face and scalp. When he asks what he can expect from this condition, you say: A. “If your rash is itchy, the itching may be worse when you are hot and sweaty.” B. “This is probably a one-time rash and should not come back.” C. “This condition does not run in families, so your children are not at risk of developing it.” D. “This rash is most common in people that have poor hygiene, so you will have to shower at least once a day.” ANS: A PTS: 1 42. Janet has psoriasis that covers 25% of her body. Which of the following treatment options should be considered? A. Referral to plastic surgery B. Methotrexate 10 mg daily C. Anthralin 0.1% ointment applied once a day D. A surgical consult ANS: B PTS: 1 43. Heidi has a fingerlike, flesh -colored projection emanating from a broad base on her mouth. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Plantar wart B. Flat wart C. Verruca vulgaris D. Digitate wart ANS: D PTS: 1 44. Maria had impetigo and is seeing her health -care provider for a follow -up visit. Which of the following teaching points should the provider discuss? A. Keeping fingernails short can prevent the spread of impetigo. B. Impetigo can be prevented in the future by wearing a face mask. C. If a patient has impetigo in the future, they should clean everything in their home with bleach. D. Impetigo is spread by blood, so the patient should avoid donating blood. ANS: A PTS: 1 45. Jill is a patient complaining of a “bumpy” rash on her neck that is nonpruritic. She was recently on a ski trip and went in a hot tub. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. HSV -2 B. Folliculitis C. Acne vulgaris D. Actinic keratosis ANS: B PTS: 1 46. Graham has a single furuncle on his buttocks with no surrounding cellulitis. What is the best treatment option? A. Systemic antibiotics B. Cold compress to the site C. Incision and drainage D. Watchful waiting ANS: C PTS: 1 47. Jack is complaining of an extremely pruritic lesion that is round to a half circle in his genital area. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Tinea cruris B. Tinea pedis C. Tinea versicolor D. Tinea manuum ANS: A PTS: 1 48. Which of the following is true of scabies? A. Scabies is more common in the Caucasian population. B. Scabies is transmitted through blood. C. Scabies is not associated with hygiene. D. Scabies is transmitted through close personal contact. ANS: D PTS: 1 49. Which of the following is true of pediculosis? A. Pruritus occurs before the sensitivity to the head louse. B. Patients can be asymptomatic or cause few symptoms in the first 2 weeks following exposure. C. In a patient’s first infection, they will develop symptoms within 24 to 48 hours. D. It is transmitted through droplets. ANS: B PTS: 1 50. How might a rash appear on a patient with a darker skin tone? A. Dark brown B. Light pink C. Bright red D. Deep purple ANS: A PTS: 1 51. What of the following is the most common appearance of Paget’s disease? A. Poorly defined, red, raised plaque on one nipple B. Scattered white papules on the nipples bilaterally C. Oval -shaped, erythematous scaling plaque with sharp margins on one nipple D. Raised, silvery -white patches on the nipples bilaterally ANS: C PTS: 1 Eye Problems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. An acutely presenting, erythematous, tender lump within the eyelid is called: A. Blepharitis B. Hordeolum C. Chalazion D. Iritis ANS: B PTS: 1 2. A granulomatous infection of a meibomian gland that presents as a painless swelling on the eyelid is called a: A. Iritis B. Chalazion C. Viral conjunctivitis D. Nuclear cataracts ANS: B PTS: 1 3. Billy presents with edematous and erythematous lid margins and closer visual inspection with a Wood’s lamp reveals scaling. Which of the following conditions could be the diagnosis? A. Hordeolum B. Chalazion C. Blepharitis D. Iritis ANS: C PTS: 1 4. Which of the following is true about epiphora? A. It is uncommon that it’s a response to dry eye. B. It will lead to decreased tearing. C. It is common in infants. D. It will lead to increased irritation. ANS: D PTS: 1 5. The clinician is seeing a patient complaining of red eye. The clinician suspects conjunctivitis. The presence of mucopurulent discharge suggests which type of conjunctivitis? A. Viral conjunctivitis B. Keratoconjunctivitis C. Bacterial conjunctivitis D. Allergic conjunctivitis ANS: C PTS: 1 6. Which is appropriate patient education to provide regarding bacterial conjunctivitis? A. The patient should continue to go to his or her job as a day-care teacher. B. The patient should make sure to practice proper hand washing. C. The patient should touch his or her eyes to apply medication. D. The patient will be infectious for only 24 hours after diagnosis of bacterial conjunctivitis. ANS: B PTS: 1 7. What of the following in the patient’s history would lead the provider to diagnose a corneal abrasion? A. Patient’s mother had a corneal abrasion. B. Patient wears glasses. C. Patient complains, “I feel like something is in my right eye.” D. Patient complains, “My eyes feel so dry.” ANS: C PTS: 1 8. Which subtype of cataracts is characterized by significant nearsightedness and a slow indolent course? A. Nuclear cataracts B. Cortical cataracts C. Posterior cataracts D. Immature cataracts ANS: A PTS: 1 9. Which of the following produces a slow and painless visual field loss that usually begins peripherally? A. Posterior cataracts B. Open -angle glaucoma C. Immature cataracts D. Macular degeneration ANS: B PTS: 1 10. Which of the following is TRUE regarding dietary supplements and cataracts? A. High doses of vitamin E prevent the progression of cataracts. B. Low doses of vitamin C increase age-related cataract development. C. There is no evidence that concretely proves the benefit of high-dose vitamin E to prevent cataracts. D. Weekly lutein prevents the formation of cataracts. ANS: C PTS: 1 11. Which of the following contribute to the development of chronic open -angle glaucoma? A. Myopia B. Multiple sclerosis C. Hyperopia D. Small cornea ANS: A PTS: 1 12. A 65 -year-old man presents to the clinician with complaints of increasing bilateral peripheral vision loss, poor night vision, and frequent prescription changes that started 6 months previously. Recently, he has also been seeing halos around lights. The clinician suspects chronic open -angle glaucoma . Which of the following statements is true concerning the diagnosis of chronic open - angle glaucoma? A. The presence of increased intraocular pressure measured by tonometry is definitive for the diagnosis of open -angle glaucoma. B. The clinician can definitively diagnosis open -angle glaucoma based on the subjective complaints of the patient. C. Physical diagnosis relies on gonioscopic evaluation of the angle by an ophthalmologist. D. Early diagnosis is essential in order to reverse any damage that has occur red to the optic nerve. ANS: C PTS: 1 13. Acute angle -closure glaucoma involves a sudden severe rise in intraocular pressure. Which of the following ranges represents normal intraocular pressure? A. 0 to 7 mm Hg B. 12 to 22 mm Hg C. 22 to 40 mm Hg D. 40 to 80 mm Hg ANS: B PTS: 1 14. Which of the following education points is essential to provide to the patient with glaucoma? A. Their medication may have adverse effects. B. Only the patient can instill eye drops. C. Eye infections are common and are not a concern. D. Eye exams must happen monthly. ANS: A PTS: 1 15. With regards to the relationship between diabetes and diabetic retinopathy, which of the following is TRUE? A. Diabetic retinopathy only occurs in patients with type 1 diabetes. B. Diabetic retinopathy is always the first sign that a patient has diabetes. C. The longer the patient has had diabetes, the more likelihood that they will develop retinopathy. D. Diabetic retinopathy only occurs in patients with type 2 diabetes. ANS: C PTS: 1 16. As diabetic retinopathy progresses, the presence of “cotton wool” spots can be detected. “Cotton wool” spots refer to: A. Microvascular infarctions B. Blood vessel proliferation C. Venous beading D. Retinal hemorrhage ANS: A PTS: 1 17. Marie has diabetes mellitus with proliferative retinopathy. How often should she see her ophthalmologist? A. Monthly B. Every 2 months C. Every 3 to 4 months D. Annually ANS: C PTS: 1 18. Who of the following is a patient with risk factors for macular degeneration? A. 50-year-old African American male B. 65-year-old Caucasian female C. 40-year-old Asian man D. 90-year-old Hispanic female ANS: B PTS: 1 19. Sarah is a patient with a complaint of feeling like she has “sand in her eye.” Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Cataracts B. Diabetic retinopathy C. Macular degeneration D. Keratitis sicca ANS: D PTS: 1 20. A patient was diagnosed with gradual floaters that the provider determined did not require treatment. What is a common complaint when a patient has benign floaters? A. “In my right eye I see little dots when I stare in the direction of the sun.” B. “In both eyes I see bright white dots that block my vision when I am in a black room.” C. “I can’t see in my left eye when I look into a bright room.” D. “When I am in a dark room a big white dot blocks my field of vision in my left eye.” ANS: A PTS: 1 21. A patient is complaining of seeing “flashing lights.” What is the provider’s next step? A. Send the patient to ophthalmology immediately to evaluate for macular degeneration. B. Tell the patient that it is normal to see flashing lights occasionally. C. Send the patient to ophthalmology immediately to evaluate for a retinal tear or detachment. D. Tell the patient that they can wait to be seen by ophthalmology for 1 month. ANS: C PTS: 1 22. Robin presents with tearing in her right eye that started this morning. What is the most likely cause in the provider’s differential diagnosis? A. Dry eye B. Foreign body in the eye C. Diabetic retinopathy D. Cataract ANS: B PTS: 1 23. Which of the following medications used in the treatment of glaucoma works by constricting the pupils to open the angle and allow aqueous fluid to escape? A. Pilocarpine B. Timolol C. Brinzolamide D. Acetazolamide ANS: A PTS: 1 Ear, Nose, and Throat Problems MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is an example of sensorineural hearing loss?