(Test Bank) Brock Biology of Microorganisms

Madigan, 15

Biology

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15th Edition

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Brock Biology of Microorganisms, 11e (Madigan/Martinko)Chapter 1: Microorganisms and Microbiology 1) Which statement is not true as a general rule? A) Microbial cells exist as single cells or in cell clusters.B) Microbial cells carry out their life processes independently.C) Microbial cells include both bacteria and viruses.D) Microbial cells exclude the cells of plants and animals.Answer: C 2) Basic microbiology can be used toA) probe the nature of life processes.B) study biochemical properties common to all cells.C) model our understanding of cell function in higher organisms.D) all of the above.Answer: D 3) Applied microbiology deals with problems inA) medicine.B) agriculture.C) industry.D) all of the above.Answer: D 4) The greatest source of biomass on Earth comes fromA) prokaryotic cells.B) plants.C) animals.D) plants and animals together.Answer: A 5) The cell's genetic information is found in theA) cell membrane.B) nucleus or nucleoid.C) cytoplasm.D) none of the above.Answer: B 6) Because the cell communicates, exchanges materials with its environment, and undergoes change, it is called a(n)A) ancestral system.B) dynamic entity.C) closed system.D) nucleoid system.Answer: B 7) Changes in cellular characteristics are transmitted to offspring through the process ofA) chemical signaling.B) reproductive initiative.C) evolution.D) none of the above.Answer: C 8) Catalysts involved in the acceleration of the rate of chemical reactions are calledA) catalytic converters.B) growth agents.C) evolutionary molecules.D) enzymes.Answer: D 9) Regarding early life on Earth:A) Microbial life existed on Earth for billions of years before plant and animal life.B) Microbial life existed on Earth long before animals but has been around for about the same amount of time as plants.C) Microbial life, plant life, and animal life all appeared at about the same time.D) It is impossible to determine which type of life first appeared on Earth.Answer: A 10) Most prokaryotic cells resideA) on the Earth's surface.B) in the Earth's lakes, rivers, and oceans.C) in and on non-prokaryotic organisms (including humans and other animals).D) in the oceanic and terrestrial subsurfaces.Answer: D 11) The person who described the "wee animalcules" wasA) Hooke.B) van Leeuwenhoek.C) Pasteur.D) Cohn.Answer: B 12) Fannie Hesse is credited with giving __________ the ideas for using agar as a solidifying agent.A) Pasteur B) CohnC) KochD) WinogradskyAnswer: C 13) Which of the following is/are characteristic of cellular organisms?A) MetabolismB) ReproductionC) CommunicationD) All of the aboveAnswer: D 14) Which of the following is not a major ecosystem?A) AquaticB) TerrestrialC) AtmosphericD) Higher organisms, both plant and animalAnswer: C 15) Which statement is true?A) Populations are assemblages of microbial communities.B) Microbial communities are assemblages of populations.C) Habitats are assemblages of microbial communities.D) Populations are assemblages of habitats.Answer: B 16) The export of U.S. beef to foreign markets was shut down in 2003 due toA) AIDS.B) smallpox.C) tuberculosis.D) mad cow disease.Answer: D 17) During a very scientifically productive period in his life, Pasteur developed vaccines for A) anthrax.B) fowl cholera.C) rabies.D) all of the above.Answer: D 18) The discovery of antibiotics and other important chemicals led to the field of A) industrial microbiology.B) agricultural microbiology.C) marine microbiology.D) aquatic microbiology.Answer: A 19) Microbial sterilization is used toA) decrease the possibility of contaminants growing in a culture.B) kill bacteria but not necessarily viruses or other microbes.C) kill all microbes in or on objects.D) clean a work area.Answer: C 20) Flat covered dishes used for growing microbes are most commonly calledA) Petri dishes.B) baker dishes.C) sterilization plates.D) culture medium plates.Answer: A21) Microbes playing a role in nitrogen fixation in plants live in __________ while those playing a role in the digestive tract of certain herbivores live in __________.A) rumens / nodulesB) nodules / rumensC) nodules / fortransD) fortrans / rumensAnswer: B 22) Genetic engineering could best be described asA) the creating of life from non-life.B) the artificial manipulation of genes and their products.C) the treating of diseases with synthetic drugs.D) the expansion of the biomass to meet specific needs.Answer: B 23) The ultimate downfall of the theory of spontaneous generation was the result of work byA) Pasteur.B) Koch.C) Hooke.D) Leeuwenhoek.Answer: A 24) A Pasteur flask has a(n)A) swan neck to prevent air particles from getting into the main body of the flask. B) double neck so two substances may be added at the same time.C) secondary opening at the base to allow for drainage.D) inverted upper edge to prevent spillage while swirling.Answer: A 25) Koch's greatest accomplishment in the field of medical bacteriology was withA) Escherichia coli.B) Bacillus subtilis.C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis.D) Bacillus cereus.Answer: C 26) A pure cultureA) is sterile.B) has only one type of organism growing in or on it.C) is made of a clearly defined chemical medium.D) was cultured for a certified stock culture.Answer: B 27) Beijerinck was the first to isolateA) many soil and aquatic microorganisms.B) certain aerobic nitrogen fixing bacteria.C) certain sulfate reducing bacteria.D) all of the above.Answer: D 28) Chemolithotrophy involves theA) oxidation of organic compounds.B) oxidation of inorganic compounds.C) reduction of organic compounds.D) metabolic autotrophy.Answer: B 29) Advances in immunology and medical microbiology are, most specifically, practical extensions of the work ofA) Winogradsky.B) Leeuwenhoek.C) Lister.D) Koch.Answer: D 30) Microbial control in wastewater treatment plants would most logically be a part ofA) microbial genetics.B) microbial ecology.C) microbial technology.D) bacterial energetics.Answer: B 31) Viruses that attack bacteria are known asA) bacterial consumers.B) bacteriophages.C) microphages.D) viroids.Answer: B 32) Without microorganisms, all higher life forms on Earth would cease to exist.Answer: TRUE 33) Most microorganisms are pathogenic.Answer: FALSE 34) All microorganisms require molecular oxygen to carry on life functions.Answer: FALSE 35) Metabolism is common to all living organisms.Answer: TRUE 36) According to our present understanding, each of the major domains has what is known as its own universal ancestor.Answer: FALSE 37) Microbiology as a distinct science did not develop until the eighteenth century.Answer: FALSE 38) The location in an environment where a population lives is the habitat.Answer: TRUE 39) Differentiation occurs only in multi-cellular organisms.Answer: FALSE 40) The study of nutrients that microorganisms require is known as microbial systematics.Answer: FALSE 41) Smallpox is a major killer in parts of the developing world.Answer: FALSE 42) Winogradsky worked with soil bacteria involved in cycling nitrogen and sulfur.Answer: TRUE 43) The four macromolecules common to all cells are: __________, __________, __________, and __________.Answer: protein / lipid / carbohydrate / nucleic acid (any order) 44) Our concept of what is alive is constrained by __________.Answer: what we can observe on Earth or deduce from the fossil record 45) The study of the physical and chemical structure of microorganisms would be a part of microbial __________.Answer: cytology 46) List three contributions of Ferdinand Cohn to the development of microbiology.Answer: Answers could possibly include: founding bacteriology as a separate science, studying Beggiatoa, discovering the genus Bacillus (along with its endospore formation and its life cycle), devising methods to prevent contamination, and founding a major scientific journal. 47) The process whereby microorganisms are used to help clean up pollution created by human activities is known as __________.Answer: bioremediation 48) An ecosystem could be defined as __________ along with their __________.Answer: living organisms / chemical and physical environments 49) The first and foremost instrument of the microbiologist is the __________.Answer: microscope 50) Robert Koch received the 1905 Nobel Prize for Physiology or Medicine for __________.Answer: his work with the tuberculosis bacterium 51) The disease anthrax is caused by the organism __________ which produces heat-resistant structures known as __________.Answer: Bacillus anthracis / endospores 52) Microbial biochemistry involves the discovery of __________ and the __________.Answer: microbial enzymes / chemical reactions they carry out 53) Nucleic acid sequencing has allowed for the development of the field of __________ and the subdiscipline of __________.Answer: genomics / proteomics 54) Explain the nature and function of an enrichment culture.Answer: Answers will vary, but an enrichment culture uses media, chemicals or culture conditions to select for or enhance specific characteristics of an organism 55) Why is it incorrect to say an object is partially sterile?Answer: Answers will vary, but sterile means the absence of living organisms. Something is either sterile or it is not. 56) The microbes were first formally observed in the mid-1600s, but the cell theory wasn't enunciated until 1839. Write a brief essay explaining why microbiology did not become a formally recognized science until Pasteur's and Koch's time. 57) Compare and contrast the works of Louis Pasteur and Robert Koch in terms of both applied and basic science. 58) Explain why microbial cells are excellent models for understanding cell function in higher organisms.Answer: Answers will vary but should include commonality of function, biochemical and genetic similarities, and ease and speed with which they can be grown in large quantities. 59) Compare and contrast the leading causes of death in 1900 with the leading causes of death today. What roles have microbiologists played in the dramatic changes which are evident? 60) Consider hypothetical disease X. How would Koch's postulates be used to demonstrate whether or not organism Y is the causative agent of disease X? 61) Explain how bacteria can be both beneficial and detrimental to the food industry. 62) Describe some of the essential functions which must be encoded by a "minimalist genome."Answer: Answers will vary, but should minimally include metabolism, reproduction, communication, and ability to evolve. Some answers may include differentiation and movement.Chapter 2: An Overview of Microbial Life 1) The presence of membrane-enclosed organelles is a characteristic of A) prokaryotic cells.B) eukaryotic cells.C) all cells.D) viruses.Answer: B 2) Which of the following are made up of prokaryotic cells?A) Bacteria and fungiB) Archaea and fungiC) Protozoa and animalsD) Bacteria and ArchaeaAnswer: D 3) Protein coding sequences of DNA are known asA) RNA segments.B) chromosomes.C) genes.D) histones.Answer: C 4) Based on our present understanding, which statement is probably true?A) Bacteria and Archaea diverged from a Eukarya ancestor.B) Bacteria and Eukarya evolved from an archaeal ancestor.C) Bacteria and Eukarya evolved from one line; Archaea had a totally different ancestor.D) Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya all diverged from a common universal ancestor or community of organisms.Answer: D 5) Disease-causing prokaryotes are found exclusively among theA) Archaea.B) Bacteria.C) fungi.D) viruses.Answer: B 6) Organisms most likely to be found in extreme environments areA) Archaea.B) Bacteria.C) fungi.D) viruses.Answer: A 7) The cyanobacteria are most closely related to theA) gram-negative Bacteria.B) gram-positive Bacteria.C) Archaea.D) Eukarya.Answer: B 8) Syphilis and Lyme disease are both caused byA) spirochetes.B) endospores from the Bacillus group.C) mycoplasmas.D) toxins from the Streptomyces.Answer: A 9) Which of the following organisms lives within the host cell as a means of avoiding destruction by the host's immune response?A) Chloroflexus sp.B) Deinococcus radioduransC) Streptococcus sp.D) Mycobacterium tuberculosisAnswer: D 10) At the present time, __________ major subdivisions of the Archaea have been identified.A) 2B) 3C) 4D) 5Answer: A 11) Which statement is true about the genus Natronobacterium?A) They are halophilic and alkaliphilic.B) They are halophilic and acidophilic.C) They are alkaliphilic but not halophilic.D) They are acidophilic but not halophilic.Answer: A 12) Which statement is true?A) Yeasts are fungi while molds are degenerate plants.B) Yeasts are degenerate plants while molds are fungi.C) Both yeasts and molds are degenerate plants.D) Both yeasts and molds are fungi.Answer: D 13) In a lichen, the __________ is the phototrophic component while the __________ provides the phototroph with an anchor and with protection from the elements.A) alga / cyanobacteriumB) fungus / algaC) alga / fungusD) fungus / cyanobacteriumAnswer: C 14) The eukaryotic fruiting body is generally associated with theA) Paramecium.B) slime mold.C) typanosome.D) yeast.Answer: B 15) Early branching Eukarya lackA) ribosomes.B) nuclei.C) mitochondria.D) genetic material.Answer: C 16) In relation to eukaryotic cells, prokaryotic cells are generallyA) larger.B) smaller.C) about the same size.D) There is no general rule about comparative cell size.Answer: B 17) Paired chromosomes are found in the A) Bacteria.B) Eukarya.C) Archaea.D) viruses.Answer: B 18) Mechanisms for controlling gene expression are foundA) only in eukaryotes.B) only in prokaryotes.C) in some but not all prokaryotes and in some but not all eukaryotes.D) in all cells - prokaryotic and eukaryotic.Answer: D 19) Ribosomal RNA-based studies reveal thatA) all eukaryotic organisms are related but that all prokaryotic organisms are not necessarily related.B) all prokaryotic organisms are related but that all eukaryotic organisms are not necessarily related.C) the Archaea are most closely related to the viruses.D) all organisms are thought to have diverged from a common ancestral organism or community of organisms.Answer: D 20) Which statement is true?A) All natural and most synthetic compounds can be broken down by one or more microorganisms.B) All synthetic and most natural compounds can be broken down by one or more microorganisms.C) All natural and all synthetic compounds can be broken down by one or more microorganisms.D) Most natural and most synthetic compounds can be broken down by one or more microorganisms.Answer: A 21) According to our present understanding, mitochondria and chloroplasts are probably __________ in origin.A) viralB) prokaryoticC) eukaryoticD) archaealAnswer: B 22) The model organism for microbial physiology, biochemistry, and molecular biology isA) Escherichia coli.B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.C) Azotobacter sp.D) Candida albicans.Answer: A 23) In many of the chemolithotrophic species, sulfur compounds are __________ to fuel either metabolic functions or energy generation.A) oxidizedB) reducedC) hydratedD) neutralizedAnswer: A 24) Which of the following groups of organisms is not gram-positive? A) LactobacillusB) PseudomonasC) StreptococcusD) ClostridiumAnswer: B 25) RNA-based phylogenies have impacted many subdisciplines of microbiology, includingA) microbial classification.B) microbial ecology.C) clinical diagnostics.D) all of the above.Answer: D 26) What type of energy-yielding metabolism is only found in prokaryotes?A) ChemoorganotrophyB) PhototrophyC) ChemolithotrophyD) AutotrophyAnswer: C 27) In which of the following habitats might an extremophile be isolated?A) Garden soil at neutral pHB) Boiling hot springsC) Human skinD) A freshwater pondAnswer: B 28) Which organism has unusual cell walls, can reassemble its chromosome after it has been damaged, and has an innate resistance to high levels of radiation?A) ChlamydiaB) PseudomonasC) DeinococcusD) LactobacillusAnswer: C 29) How was it determined that mitochondria and chloroplasts of eukaryotes are actually ancestors of specific lineages of Bacteria?A) Visual inspectionB) Ribosomal RNA sequencing technologyC) Evolutionary studiesD) Clinical diagnosisAnswer: B 30) Microorganisms today are most probably a degeneration of the earliest life forms.Answer: FALSE 31) Ribosomes function primarily in energy production.Answer: FALSE 32) Prokaryotic chromosomes are generally linear.Answer: FALSE 33) Meiosis is the process by which haploid gametes are formed.Answer: TRUE 34) Ribosomal RNAs can be used to study phylogenetic relationships between organisms.Answer: TRUE 35) Endosymbiosis is an explanation for the origin of mitochondria and chloroplasts in eukaryotic cells.Answer: TRUE 36) Phototrophs use light as an energy source.Answer: TRUE 37) Viruses necessarily cause disease in the organisms they infect.Answer: FALSE 38) Species of Archaea are more closely related to eukaryotes than are species of prokaryotes.Answer: TRUE 39) The waste products of chemoorganotrophs are often used for energy by chemolithotrophs.Answer: TRUE 40) The evolutionary significance of the extreme thermophiles may be that they are modern descendants of very ancient cell lines, cell lines dating back to a time when the planet was very warm.Answer: TRUE 41) Organisms of the genus Halobacterium can grow within salt crystals.Answer: TRUE 42) The Picrophilus are the most alkaliphilic prokaryotes known.Answer: FALSE 43) All known Archaea are extremophiles of one sort or another.Answer: FALSE 44) The cyanobacteria were probably the first oxygenic phototrophs on Earth.Answer: TRUE 45) Most species of the genus Chlamydia are pathogens.Answer: TRUE 46) The distinct feature of the planctomyces group is a __________.Answer: distinct stalk allowing for attachment to a solid substratum 47) To say that an organism is an "obligate intracellular parasite" means __________.Answer: the organism must live inside of another organism in order to survive 48) One major difference between chromosomes and plasmids is that plasmids generally contain __________ rather than __________ genes.Answer: genes conferring special properties / housekeeping (essential) 49) A eukaryotic, chlorophyll-containing organism that can live in environments containing only a few minerals, water, carbon dioxide, and light is a(n) __________.Answer: alga 50) Two major roles of fungi are __________ and __________.Answer: food / medicine / decay / recycling of nutrients / biodegradation in nature / recycling of organic matter (any order) 51) The complement of genes within a cell is called the __________.Answer: genome 52) The evolutionary relationships between life forms are studied in the science of __________.Answer: phylogeny 53) The three options by which an organism may obtain energy are: __________, __________, and _________.Answer: organic chemicals / inorganic chemicals / light (any order) 54) The difference between chemoorganotrophy and chemolithotrophy is __________.Answer: Answers will vary but chemoorganotrophs use organic compounds as an energy source and chemolithotrophs use inorganic compounds as an energy source. 55) A cell that uses carbon dioxide as its source of cell carbon is a(n)___________.Answer: autotroph 56) The largest division (or phylum) of Bacteria is the __________.Answer: Proteobacteria 57) The unique feature of the mycoplasmas is the _________.Answer: lack of a cell wall 58) The function of the chloroplast is the __________.Answer: site for photosynthesis in eukaryotic cells 59) Lichens are called mutualistic organisms because __________.Answer: they are composed of two organisms that live together and each benefits from the relationship 60) The commonality linking the Aquifex and Thermotoga species is __________.Answer: both groups grow at near boiling point temperatures 61) The most heat loving of all known prokaryotes is __________.Answer: the archaeon Pyrolobus 62) The __________ provides structural strength to plant cells and most microorganisms, while the __________ serves a similar function in animal cells.Answer: cell wall / cytoskeleton 63) Cyanobacteria and their phylogenetic relatives undergo a process known as __________ in which molecular oxygen is liberated.Answer: oxygenic photosynthesis 64) The two eukaryotic organelles involved in energy generation are __________ and __________.Answer: mitochondria / chloroplasts 65) Compare and contrast the green sulfur bacteria and the green nonsulfur bacteria. 66) Explain the similarities and differences between viruses and true cells. 67) Why are the Archaea so difficult to study in the laboratory? 68) Why are most of the "early branching" Eukarya pathogenic or parasitic?Answer: Answers will vary but generally the answer should include a statement about their being unable to live a free and independent existence. 69) Explain the role of the methanogens in ecological studies. 70) Compare and contrast algae and cyanobacteria.Possible answers include: Algae are eukaryotes while cyanobacteria are prokaryotes. Both are photosynthetic.71) In what way are the Thermoplasma like the Mycoplasma?Answer: Answers will vary but should include a statement that they both lack cell wall. 72) Explain the concept of domain in relation to the tree of life. 73) Sketch a phylogenetic tree showing the domains and major branches.Answer: Answers will vary, but the sketch should resemble the "domain tree" in text. 74) Elaborate on how chemolithotrophy and phototrophy have influenced microbial competition and, thus, microbial habitats. 75) Explain why primary producers, especially those that undergo oxygenic photosynthesis, are essential for life on Earth.Chapter 3: Macromolecules 1) A covalent bond occurs when atomsA) share electrons.B) gain electrons.C) give up electrons.D) are repelled by the electrons of other atoms.Answer: A 2) In general, triple covalent bonds areA) stronger than single covalent bonds.B) weaker than single covalent bonds.C) stronger or weaker than single covalent bonds, depending on the molecule.D) about as strong as single covalent bonds.Answer: A 3) A hydrogen bond could best be classified as a(n)A) sharing of electrons between dissimilar atoms.B) electron repulsion based on electron proximity.C) bond between hydrogen atoms and more electronegative elements.D) arbitrary designation used to facilitate chemical explanations.Answer: C 4) In a given quantity of water molecules one will findA) only covalent bonds.B) only hydrogen bonds.C) both covalent bonds and hydrogen bonds.D) neither covalent bonds nor hydrogen bonds.Answer: C 5) Hydrophobic interactions occur whenA) nonpolar molecules dissociate in aqueous solutions.B) nonpolar molecules cluster in aqueous solutions.C) polar molecules interact with nonpolar molecules in a polar environment.D) polar molecules cluster in aqueous solutions.Answer: B 6) Organic compounds are those compounds which specifically containA) carbon.B) hydrogen.C) oxygen.D) all of the above.Answer: A 7) About what percentage of the dry weight of a cell consists of macromolecules?A) 25%B) 58%C) 73%D) 95%Answer: D 8) The monomeric unit of a protein is a(n)A) amino acid.B) glycerol molecule.C) glycogen molecule.D) peptide bond.Answer: A 9) Which statement is true?A) The average cell contains more DNA than RNA.B) The average cell contains more RNA than DNA.C) The average cell contains approximately equal amounts of DNA and RNA.D) It is impossible to determine the relative amounts of DNA and RNA.Answer: B 10) The cohesiveness of water is responsible for itsA) high surface tension.B) high specific heat.C) orderly molecular arrangements.D) all of the above.Answer: D 11) The most abundant of all sugars isA) sucrose.B) glucose.C) lactose.D) fructose.Answer: B 12) Carbohydrates have a general carbon, hydrogen, oxygen ratio ofA) 1:2:3.B) 2:1:2.C) 1:2:1.D) 1:2:2.Answer: C 13) Polysaccharides are monomeric units linked together by __________ bonds.A) peptideB) glycosidicC) lipoidalD) hydrogenAnswer: B 14) As monomeric units of glucose are joined by an alpha 1-4 linkage, the resultant product might be __________ or __________; while if these glucose units are joined by a beta 1-4 linkage, the product will be __________.A) starch / glycogen / celluloseB) glycogen / cellulose / starchC) cellulose / starch / glycogenD) A or B, depending on the length of the polysaccharide.Answer: A 15) Triglycerides are lipids containingA) three fatty acids bound to one glycerol molecule.B) three glycerols bound to one fatty acid.C) three fatty acids bound to three intertwining glycerols.D) three free fatty acids.Answer: A 16) A phospholipid is a complex lipid containing a(n)A) phenol group.B) ethanolamine group.C) phosphoglyceric acid tail.D) phosphate group.Answer: D 17) Of the polynucleotides, __________ is the blueprint, while __________ is the intermediary.A) DNA / RNAB) RNA / DNAC) DNA / glycogenD) RNA / glycogenAnswer: A 18) Of the following nitrogen bases, which one is a purine?A) CytosineB) AdenineC) UracilD) ThymineAnswer: B 19) A nucleoside is like a nucleotide except that the nucleoside does not includeA) one or more phosphates.B) the sugar.C) the nitrogen base.D) the phosphate and sugar.Answer: A 20) Polynucleotides consist of nucleotides covalently bonded via phosphate from the A) 3' carbon of one sugar to the 5' carbon of the adjacent sugar.B) 5' carbon of one sugar to the 3' carbon of the adjacent sugar.C) 3' carbon of one sugar to the 3' carbon of the adjacent sugar.D) 5' carbon of one sugar to the 5' carbon of the adjacent sugar.Answer: A 21) In its double-stranded form, the strands of DNA in the chromosome are said toA) be complementary.B) be held together by hydrogen bonds.C) contain the same amount of guanine as cytosine.D) all of the above. Answer: D 22) Which RNA molecules are the "adaptor" molecules in protein synthesis?A) Messenger RNAB) Transfer RNAC) Ribosomal RNAD) None of the aboveAnswer: B 23) The chemical properties of an amino acid are determined primarily by the amino acid'sA) carboxylic acid group.B) amino group.C) R group.D) alpha carbon.Answer: C 24) In biological systems, the predominant molecular forms areA) D sugars and L amino acids.B) L sugars and D amino acids.C) D sugars and D amino acids.D) L sugars and L amino acids.Answer: A 25) Enantiomer is a term used to describe molecules that areA) artificially made in the laboratory.B) mirror images of each other.C) hybrids of the major macromolecules.D) all of the above.Answer: B 26) The function of racemases is toA) convert sugar and amino acid structures into metabolizable forms.B) insert sugars into peptidoglycan molecules.C) produce enantiomers.D) none of the above.Answer: A 27) In a polypeptide, the linear arrangement of the amino acids is the __________ structure while the interactions of the R groups result in the _________ structure.A) primary / tertiaryB) secondary / quaternaryC) primary / secondaryD) secondary / tertiaryAnswer: C 28) In order for a protein to have a quaternary structure, it must be made up ofA) amino acids containing sulfur.B) two or more polypeptides.C) histones.D) chemically diverse bonding patterns.Answer: B 29) What complex macromolecule is a major component of gram-negative bacterial cell walls?A) Nucleic acidsB) GlycolipidsC) GlycoproteinsD) MonosaccharidesAnswer: B 30) The type of RNA that is an important structural and catalytic component of the protein-synthesizing system of the cell isA) mRNA.B) tRNA.C) rRNA.D) all of the above.Answer: C 31) D-form amino acids are typically found in what bacterial structure(s)?A) Cytoplasmic membraneB) RibosomesC) ProteinsD) PeptidoglycanAnswer: D 32) The macromolecule that is present primarily in the cell wall of Bacteria is A) nucleic acid.B) protein.C) polysaccharide.D) lipid.Answer: C 33) If one strand of DNA has the sequence ACCTGCTTAGCCTA, the DNA sequence on the complementary strand isA) TGGACGAATCGGAT.B) ACCTGCTTAGCCTA.C) TAGGCTAAGCAGGT.D) UGGACGAAUCGGAU.Answer: A 34) The macromolecules are the basic structural and functional components of the cell. Answer: TRUE 35) A molecule is the substance formed when two or more atoms are chemically bonded to one another.Answer: TRUE 36) Hydrogen bonding can be found between atoms in all macromolecules.Answer: TRUE 37) Van der Waals forces occur when electron shells become closer than 3-4 angstroms.Answer: TRUE 38) Hydrophobic interactions play a role in protein folding.Answer: FALSE 39) The most abundant class of macromolecule by weight in the cell is the lipids.Answer: FALSE 40) Hydrogen bonding contributes to the polarity of water.Answer: TRUE 41) The most biologically relevant carbohydrates are those containing eight carbon atoms.Answer: FALSE 42) The bacterial cell wall polymer peptidoglycan contains a glucose derivative.Answer: TRUE 43) Fatty acids contain both hydrophilic and hydrophobic properties.Answer: TRUE 44) The amphipathic properties of lipids make them ideal structural components of membranes.Answer: TRUE 45) Ribose is the five carbon sugar found in DNA.Answer: FALSE 46) Uracil is found only in DNA.Answer: FALSE 47) The sequence of bases in RNA and DNA is informational in nature.Answer: TRUE 48) With few exceptions, all ribonucleic acids are single-stranded molecules.Answer: TRUE 49) The folding pattern observed in RNA gives the molecule its primary structure.Answer: FALSE 50) There are 21 common amino acids found in cells.Answer: TRUE 51) Functional segments or regions of a polypeptide are known as domains.Answer: TRUE 52) When a protein is denatured, only the tertiary structure is affected.Answer: FALSE 53) An understanding of the macromolecules is essential for an understanding of microbiology.Answer: TRUE 54) The relationship between a monomer and a polymer is __________.Answer: a polymer is made up of chemically joined monomers 55) The two general functional categories (or classes) of proteins are __________ and __________.Answer: catalytic / structural (either order) 56) The difference between a glycoprotein and a glycolipid is ___________.Answer: glycoprotein = carbohydrate joined to a protein; glycolipid = carbohydrate joined to a lipid 57) The monomeric unit of the nucleic acid is the __________.Answer: nucleotide 58) The phosphate linkage in nucleic acids is known as a __________ linkage because a single phosphate is connected by an ester linkage to two separate sugars.Answer: phosphodiester 59) Two molecules having the same molecular formulas but different structural formulas are known as __________.Answer: isomers 60) Disruption of the higher order structure of a protein is known as __________.Answer: denaturation 61) Two key properties of water that make it such a good solvent are __________ and __________.Answer: polarity / cohesiveness (either order) 62) Major constituents of the lipids of Bacteria and Eukarya are __________, while lipids of Archaea are composed of __________. Answer: fatty acids / phytane 63) __________ bonds play important roles in the formation of a protein's secondary structure.Answer: Hydrogen 64) Identify a carboxylic acid group and an amino group and explain how these function in producing a peptide bond. 65) What is a disulfide linkage and where would such a linkage be found? 66) Explain the terms alpha-helix and beta-sheet in terms of the secondary structure of a protein. 67) Construct a chart summarizing the principle characteristics of each of the macromolecules. 68) Explain how the function of a protein is dictated by its structure and vice versa. 69) Explain why phospholipid membranes are ideal permeability barriers.Chapter 4: Cell Structure/Function 1) The ultimate limit of what we are able to see with a microscope is defined byA) magnification.B) resolution.C) light intensity.D) visual acuity.Answer: B 2) The most common type of microscopy for laboratory courses in biology and microbiology is done with theA) bright-field microscope.B) phase contrast microscope.C) dark-field microscope.D) electron microscope.Answer: A 3) When the oil-immersion lens is used, A) light rays are scattered so unnecessary background material is not seen.B) light rays are collected to increase clarity.C) objects are held in place on the microscope slide.D) magnification of objects is increased by about ten-fold.Answer: B 4) A tiny stylus positioned so close to a specimen that weak repulsive forces are generated is used inA) dark-field microscopy.B) confocal scanning laser microscopy.C) atomic force microscopy.D) none of the above.Answer: C 5) The cytoplasmic membrane is theA) highly selective permeability barrier of the cell.B) primary support structure of the cell.C) source of nutrient production.D) structure which identifies a cell as eukaryotic or prokaryotic.Answer: A 6) If the magnification of an ocular lens of a particular microscope is 10× and the magnification of the objective on the same microscope is 47×, the total magnification achieved isA) 4.7×.B) 57×.C) 470×.D) 4700×.Answer: C 7) Fluorescent microscopy is commonly used inA) radiation biology.B) clinical diagnostic microbiology.C) cancer therapy.D) the detection of chemical contaminants in a solution.Answer: B 8) An organism of the genus Staphylococcus will be __________, while an organism of the genus Spirochaeta will be __________.A) spherical / rod-shapedB) rod-shaped / coiledC) spherical / coiledD) coiled / sphericalAnswer: C 9) Appendaged bacteriaA) possess tubular or stalk-like extensions of their cells.B) have the basic characteristics of eukaryotic cells.C) have filaments that are commonly called appendages.D) do not exist.Answer: A 10) The terms run and tumble are generally associated withA) cell wall fluidity.B) cell membrane structures.C) taxic movements of the cell.D) clustering properties of certain rod-shaped bacteria.Answer: C 11) Morphology is a term that refers to the __________ of an organism.A) sizeB) shapeC) appendagesD) attachment sitesAnswer: B 12) Nutrients and waste products pass in and out of a cell in __________ proportion to the cell's size.A) directB) inverseC) exponentialD) logarithmicAnswer: B 13) The cytoplasmic membrane could best be described asA) an impermeable barrier.B) a passive conduit for intracellular transport.C) selectively permeable.D) slightly permeable to water but impermeable to metabolic solutes.Answer: C 14) Sterols areA) virtually always present in eukaryotic membranes but absent in prokaryotic membranes.B) virtually always absent in eukaryotic membranes but present in prokaryotic membranes.C) virtually always present in both eukaryotic and prokaryotic membranes.D) virtually always absent in both eukaryotic and prokaryotic membranes.Answer: A 15) Regarding membrane linkages, which statement is true?A) Bacteria have ester linkages; Archaea have ether linkages.B) Archaea have ester linkages; Eukarya have ether linkages.C) Eukarya have ester linkages; Bacteria have ether linkages.D) Bacteria and Eukarya have ester linkages; Archaea linkages are not yet known.Answer: A 16) Carrier mediated transport is necessary whenA) diffusion will not allow adequate amounts of a substance to enter the cell.B) movement into the cell is against a concentration gradient.C) the level of nutrients in nature is very low.D) all of the above.Answer: D 17) Which statement is true?A) The phosphotransferase system is a type of group translocation.B) Group translocation is a part of the phosphotransferase system.C) The phosphotransferase system is synonymous with group translocation.D) The phosphotransferase system has nothing to do with group translocation.Answer: A 18) The periplasm is a(n)A) part of the outer cell membrane of gram-negative organisms.B) part of the inner cell membrane of gram-negative organisms.C) region between the cytoplasmic membrane and the outer membrane of gram-negative Bacteria.D) alternate name for the inner cell membrane of any prokaryotic cell.Answer: C 19) Prokaryotes stain as gram-positive or gram-negative because of differences in the cellA) wall.B) cytoplasm.C) nucleus.D) chromosome.Answer: A 20) Which of these statements is true?A) The gram-positive wall contains a thick peptidoglycan layer and is more complex than the gram-negative wall. B) The gram-negative wall contains a thick peptidoglycan layer and is more complex than the gram-positive wall.C) The gram-positive wall contains a thick peptidoglycan layer but is about as complex as the gram-negative wall.D) The gram-positive wall contains a thick peptidoglycan layer but is less complex than the gram-negative wall.Answer: D 21) In gram-positive Bacteria, the cell wall might be up to __________ peptidoglycan.A) 25%B) 48%C) 72%D) 90%Answer: D 22) Pseudopeptidoglycan is a characteristic of the walls of A) Bacteria.B) Eukarya.C) some Archaea.D) Bacteria and Archaea.Answer: C 23) The lipopolysaccharide layer (LPS) is a characteristic of the wall ofA) gram-positive Bacteria.B) gram-negative Bacteria.C) archaeal cells.D) eukaryotic cells.Answer: B 24) An endotoxin isA) the toxic portion of the LPS.B) a toxin produced within archaeal cells.C) a toxin known for its primary attack on the epidermis of mammals.D) the toxin produced in the periplasm of most bacteria.Answer: A 25) Hydrolytic enzymes function in the A) degradation of food molecules.B) transport of substrates within the cell.C) chemotactic response, particularly in gram-negative Bacteria.D) regeneration of the periplasm.Answer: A 26) Which statement is true?A) Lophotrichous flagella are tufts on the "ends" of bacterial cells; peritrichous flagella are individual flagella on the "ends" of bacterial cells.B) Peritrichous flagella are all over the bacterial cells; lophotrichous flagella are tufts on the "ends" of bacterial cells.C) Polar flagella are individual flagella on the "ends" of bacterial cells; peritrichous flagella are tufts on the "ends" of bacterial cells.D) Polar flagella are all over the bacterial cells; lophotrichous flagella are individual flagella on the "ends" of bacterial cells.Answer: B 27) Which of the following statements is false?A) The flagellar protein subunit is flagellin.B) In flagellar motion, the basal body acts as a motor.C) Flagella rotate at a constant speed.D) The hook is the wider region at the base of the flagellum.Answer: C 28) Which of the following statements is/are true?A) Fimbriae are generally shorter and more numerous than flagella.B) Fimbriae probably function in surface adhesion.C) Pili serve as receptors and are involved in the process of conjugation.D) All of the above.Answer: D 29) Glycogen granulesA) are derived directly from either PHB or PHA.B) cannot be detected by light microscopy, even if iodine is added.C) function as storage depots for carbon and energy.D) none of the above.Answer: C 30) A major function of prokaryotic gas vesicles isA) to confer buoyancy on cells by decreasing their density.B) to serve as a reservoir for oxygen and carbon dioxide. C) to keep the cell's organelles separated during flagellar motion.D) none of the above.Answer: A 31) The membrane of a gas vesicle is composed ofA) various phospholipids.B) protein.C) carbohydrate.D) both glycoproteins and phospholipids.Answer: B 32) What is the biological function of endospores?A) They are bacterial reproductive structures.B) They enable organisms to endure extremes of temperature, drying, and nutrient depletion.C) They are formed as evaginations of the bacterial cell walls.D) All of the above.Answer: B 33) The tetraether molecule within the membrane structure of the __________ yields a lipid __________.A) Archaea / bilayerB) Archaea / monolayerC) Bacteria / bilayerD) Bacteria / monolayerAnswer: B 34) Aquaporins areA) water transport proteins.B) molecules that prevent water from crossing a membrane.C) enzymes involved in the generation of water with the cells.D) cations bound to water molecules.Answer: A35) Translocases are specific for the transport ofA) carbohydrates.B) proteins.C) lipids.D) nucleic acids.Answer: B 36) What type of microscopy has found widespread use in microbial ecology because of its ability to resolve the different layered components of a biofilm?A) Dark-field microscopyB) Differential interference contrast (DIC) microscopyC) Confocal scanning laser microscopy (CSLM)D) Scanning electron microscopyAnswer: C 37) The prokaryotic transport system that involves a substrate-binding protein, a membrane transporter, and an ATP-hydrolyzing protein isA) the ABC system.B) group translocation.C) symport.D) simple transport.Answer: A 38) Negatively charged molecules that are partially responsible for the negative charge of the gram-positive bacterial cell surface areA) diaminopimelic acids.B) teichoic acids.C) phospholipids.D) peptide interbridges.Answer: B 39) Although the inner leaflet of the gram-negative outer membrane contains phospholipids, the outer leaflet of the outer membrane contains A) pseudopeptidoglycan.B) lipoteichoic acids.C) poly-β-hydroxybutyric acid (PHB).D) lipopolysaccharide (LPS).Answer: D 40) One of the many types of proteins found in the periplasm is involved in the chemotactic response and is called a A) hydrolytic enzyme.B) chemoreceptor.C) binding protein.D) porin.Answer: B 41) When does endospore formation commence?A) When bacterial growth ceases due to exhaustion of an essential nutrient.B) When the bacterium is undergoing binary fission.C) When bacteria are dividing exponentially.D) Following bacterial death.Answer: A 42) Why is the presence of a cell wall significant from a clinical standpoint?A) Because all types of cells have a cell wall and it makes identification of the causative agent of disease difficult.B) Because the cell wall protects microorganisms from destruction by the immune system.C) Because animal cells do not have cell walls, so antibiotics that target cell walls can destroy invading microorganisms.D) Because only gram-negative Bacteria have cell walls.Answer: C 43) Cells are themselves composed of basic building blocks and these basic building blocks are used to construct macromolecules that combine to yield structures with defined functions.Answer: TRUE 44) A differential stain is called "differential" because it does not stain all kinds of cells the same color.Answer: TRUE 45) In bright-field microscopy, contrast differences arise because different cells and cellular components absorb and scatter light in varying degrees.Answer: TRUE 46) In phase contrast microscopy, the differences in refractive indices between organisms and their environments are utilized for better viewing of living specimens.Answer: TRUE 47) Light microscopy is an effective way of viewing objects in three dimensions.Answer: FALSE 48) As a general statement, inclusions are made up of storage material.Answer: TRUE 49) The existence of nanobacteria was confirmed in 1999.Answer: FALSE 50) Cations help stabilize the cytoplasmic membrane by combining ionically with the negative charges of the phospholipids.Answer: TRUE 51) Hopanoids are sometimes mistakenly thought to be similar to sterols.Answer: FALSE 52) In general, lipids in the archaeal membrane lack fatty acids.Answer: TRUE 53) Some membrane proteins are involved in bioenergetic functions, while others are involved in membrane transport.Answer: TRUE 54) Both hydrophilic and charged molecules pass readily through the cell membrane.Answer: FALSE 55) Binding protein-dependent transport systems are present in both gram-positive and gram-negative Bacteria.Answer: TRUE 56) Teichoic acids are associated with gram-negative cell walls.Answer: FALSE 57) There are actually more than 100 different types of peptidoglycan.Answer: TRUE 58) Lysozyme is an enzyme that breaks 1,4-glycosidic bonds in peptidoglycan.Answer: TRUE 59) Porins are channels in the outer membranes of gram-positive Bacteria.Answer: FALSE 60) Surface/volume ratio is higher in larger cells than in smaller cells.Answer: FALSE 61) Cell movement is closely tied to energy expenditure.Answer: TRUE 62) Organisms may respond to temporal rather than spatial gradients.Answer: FALSE 63) Chemotaxis is a chemotactic sensory response affecting flagellar function.Answer: TRUE 64) In phototaxis, photosynthetic organisms move away from a light source.Answer: FALSE 65) Photoreceptors are generally analogous to chemoreceptors. Answer: TRUE 66) The S-layer may confer protection against host defense mechanisms in pathogenic bacteria that contain this layer.Answer: TRUE 67) Poly-β-hydroxybutyric acid is a carbon and energy storing polymer.Answer: TRUE 68) The measure of the light-gathering ability of the objective lens is known as the __________.Answer: numerical aperture 69) The term given to the phospholipid bilayer and the proteins embedded within it is __________.Answer: unit membrane 70) The energized state of a membrane is referred to as a __________.Answer: proton-motive force (PMF) 71) As parts of the membrane, phospholipid and protein molecules have considerable freedom to move about. Because of this movement, the membrane is often called a(n) __________.Answer: fluid mosaic (model) 72) If the peptidoglycan is digested but lysis does not occur, the cell is called a(n) __________.Answer: protoplast 73) A general term for polyphosphate, elemental sulfur, and magnetosomes is __________.Answer: inclusions 74) A phototrophic bacterium swims outside the illuminated field of view of the microscope, reverses direction, and scurries back into the lighted area. This is an example of __________.Answer: scotophobotaxis 75) The overall structure of the cytoplasmic membrane is stabilized by __________ bonds and __________ interactions.Answer: hydrogen / hydrophobic 76) The proton motive force is responsible for driving many energy-requiring functions in the cell, including some forms of __________, __________, and biosynthesis of __________.Answer: transport / motility / ATP (first two any order) 77) The peptide interbridge is only found in the cell walls of __________ Bacteria.Answer: gram-positive 78) Twitching motility is an unusual form of motility in some bacteria that is a result of a class of surface structures known as __________.Answer: type IV fimbriae or pili (either answer) 79) Explain how the saturation effect can influence carrier-mediated transport.Answer: Answers will vary but should include the fact that uptake becomes maximal and the addition of more substrate cannot increase the rate of transport. 80) Compare and contrast the mechanisms of differential interference contrast (DIC) microscopy and confocal scanning laser microscopy (CSLM). 81) Compare and contrast both the purposes and the functions of the transmission electron microscope and the scanning electron microscope. 82) Describe the make-up of the phospholipid bilayer. Include molecular orientation and embedded proteins. 83) What is the evolutionary advantage of the monolayer often found in archaeal membranes? 84) Explain the differences between uniporters, symporters, and antiporters. 85) Describe the growth of a flagellum. 86) Describe the mechanisms by which certain prokaryotes glide. What are the ecological advantages of gliding motility? 87) Describe the processes of endospore formation and germination. 88) Compare and contrast aerotaxis and osmotaxis. 89) Compare and contrast fimbriae and pili. 90) Construct a chart to show at least five major differences between the cell wall and the cell membrane of bacterial cells and archaeal cells. 91) Explain why prokaryotes tend to adapt more rapidly to changing environmental conditions and more easily exploit new habitats when compared to eukaryotes.Answer: Answers will vary, but should mention how the S/V ratio influences the growth rate and total accumulation of mutations which are immediately expressed in prokaryotes. 92) Compare and contrast the location and activities of periplasmic-binding proteins of ABC transport systems in gram-negative and gram-positive Bacteria. 93) Compare and contrast a capsule and a slime layer in terms of composition, organization, and function. 94) Elaborate on why the discovery of endospores was important to microbiology. 95) Explain what would happen to a motile bacterium undergoing chemotaxis if the Fli proteins suddenly ceased to function.Chapter 5: Nutrition, Laboratory Culture, and Metabolism of Microorganisms 1) Biochemical synthesis of new cell material is calledA) metabolism.B) anabolism.C) catabolism.D) synthatabolism.Answer: B 2) Phosphorus in microorganisms can be found inA) organic compounds.B) inorganic compounds.C) both organic and inorganic compounds.D) in neither organic nor inorganic compounds but in free elemental form in the cell.Answer: C 3) Chemoorganotrophs use which of the following as an energy source?A) Organic compoundsB) Inorganic compoundsC) Both organic and inorganic compoundsD) Either organic or inorganic compounds, depending on the environmentAnswer: A 4) Which statement is not true?A) Most bacteria are capable of using ammonia as their sole nitrogen source.B) Some bacteria are able to use nitrates or nitrogen gas as their nitrogen source.C) Most available nitrogen is in organic forms.D) Nitrogen is a major component of proteins and nucleic acids.Answer: C 5) All organisms require the following macronutrients:A) potassium, magnesium, sodium.B) phosphorus, potassium, sodium.C) calcium, potassium, magnesium.D) phosphorus, potassium, magnesium.Answer: D 6) Which nutrient is responsible for stabilizing ribosomes and nucleic acids and functions as an enzymatic cofactor?A) PotassiumB) PhosphorusC) CalciumD) MagnesiumAnswer: D 7) SiderophoresA) bind iron and transport it into the cell.B) are a key component in the cytochromes.C) help maintain osmotic balance in seawater microbes.D) develop when errors in membrane synthesis occur.Answer: A 8) Which statement is true?A) Both micronutrients and growth factors are organic compounds essential for cell growth.B) Both micronutrients and growth factors are essentially metals.C) Micronutrients are metals but growth factors are organic.D) Micronutrients are organic but growth factors are metals.Answer: C 9) Aseptic technique refers toA) the microbial inoculum placed into a test tube or onto a Petri plate.B) the prevention of contamination.C) the autoclave and other sterilizing procedures.D) cleanliness in the laboratory.Answer: B 10) Chemical energy is released when organic or inorganic compounds are A) oxidized.B) reduced.C) formed.D) incorporated into larger molecules. Answer: A 11) If ΔG° is negativeA) the reaction is exergonic and requires the input of energy.B) the reaction is endergonic and requires the input of energy.C) the reaction is exergonic and energy will be released.D) the reaction is endergonic and energy will be released.Answer: C 12) Activation energy is the energyA) required to break the chemical bonds of the reactants.B) given off as the products in a chemical reaction are formed.C) absorbed as ΔG° moves from negative to positive.D) sometimes referred to as catabolic energy.Answer: A 13) A catalystA) makes possible otherwise impossible reactions.B) increases the amount of reactants produced but does not change the rate.C) changes the rate of the reaction but does not change the end amount of prooducts.D) changes both the rate of a reaction and the amount of the product that will be obtained as the reaction is completed.Answer: C 14) The portion of the enzyme to which substrates bind is referred to as theA) substrate complex.B) active site.C) catalysis site.D) junction of Van der Waals forces.Answer: B 15) Which statement is true?A) Coenzymes are generally bound tightly to their respective enzymes.B) Prosthetic groups are generally bound tightly to their respective enzymes.C) Coenzymes and prosthetic groups are both bound tightly to their respective enzymes.D) Coenzymes and prosthetic groups are technically not bound to any enzymes.Answer: B 16) If an oxidation reaction occurs, a reduction reaction must also occur becauseA) electrons cannot exist alone in solution.B) that is what redox means.C) half reactions are written that way.D) actually, reduction is not necessary if oxidation occurs.Answer: A 17) In an electron carrier system, the net energy change is determined by the difference in reduction potentials between theA) primary electron donor and the terminal electron donor.B) primary electron acceptor and the terminal electron acceptor.C) primary electron acceptor and the terminal electron donor.D) primary electron donor and the terminal electron acceptor.Answer: D 18) NAD+ /NADH are involved primarily in __________ reactions, while NADP+ /NADPH are involved in _________ reactions.A) catabolic / anabolicB) anabolic / catabolicC) catabolic / both catabolic and anabolicD) both catabolic and anabolic / both catabolic and anabolicAnswer: A 19) The most important high energy phosphate compound in living organisms isA) glucose.B) GTP.C) RNA.D) ATP.Answer: D 20) The Embden-Meyerhof Pathway is another name forA) the citric acid cycle.B) glycolysis.C) electron transport.D) NADH production.Answer: B 21) The net gain of ATP per molecule of glucose fermented is A) 1.B) 2.C) 4.D) 8.Answer: B 22) The roadblock to the complete oxidation of glucose is overcome in fermentation by the A) oxidation of NADH back to NAD+.B) reduction of NADH back to NAD+.C) oxidation of NAD+ back to NADH.D) reduction of NAD+ back to NADH.Answer: A 23) When discussing half reactions, we must always be aware that A) half reactions are independent of each other and thus when taken together do not necessarily represent electrical and atomic balance.B) although half reactions are dependent on each other, when taken together they do not necessarily represent electrical and atomic balance.C) the final product(s) must be in redox and atomic balance with the starting substrate(s).D) half reactions don't have anything to do with electrical and atomic neutrality.Answer: C 24) From the standpoint of the microorganism, in glycolysisA) the crucial product is ATP; the fermentation products are waste products.B) the crucial product is ethanol or lactate; ATP is a waste product.C) the crucial product is CO2; ATP is a waste product.D) the crucial product is not relevant because glycolysis is not a major pathway.Answer: A 25) In aerobic respiration, the final electron acceptor is A) hydrogen.B) oxygen.C) water.D) ATP.Answer: B 26) Which of the following groups is not membrane-associated?A) NADH dehydrogenasesB) FlavoproteinsC) CytochromesD) All of these are membrane-associatedAnswer: D 27) In chemiosmosisA) OH– accumulates on the outside of the membrane while H+ accumulates on the inside.B) OH– accumulates on the inside of the membrane while H+ accumulates on the outside.C) both OH– and H+ accumulate on the inside of the membrane.D) both OH– and H+ accumulate on the outside of the membrane.Answer: B 28) Which statement is incorrect? Uncouplers prevent ATP synthesisA) by interfering with electron flow.B) by creating leaky membranes.C) without affecting electron transport.D) by destroying the proton motive force.Answer: A 29) The citric acid cycleA) deals with carbon metabolism.B) delineates the oxidation of pyruvate.C) produces NADH as it progresses.D) all of the above.Answer: D 30) As each molecule of pyruvate traverses the citric acid cycle, how many molecules of CO2 are generated?A) 1B) 2C) 3D) 4Answer: C 31) In an actively growing cell, ATP plays a(n) __________ role.A) anabolicB) catabolicC) catalyticD) antitheticAnswer: C 32) Chemolithotrophs areA) phototrophs.B) autotrophs.C) heterotrophs. D) organotrophs.Answer: B 33) For a carbon source, chemoorganotrophs generally use such compounds asA) glucose.B) carbon dioxide.C) triglycerides.D) sunlight.Answer: A 34) Polysaccharides are synthesized fromA) activated forms of glucose.B) saturated fatty acids.C) negative amino acids.D) starch/glycogen complexes.Answer: A 35) The process by which glucose is synthesized within the cell is A) glycolysis.B) gluconeogenesis.C) pentose.D) peptidogenesis.Answer: B 36) The macronutrient which comprises about 50% of the dry weight of a typical bacterial cell isA) nitrogen.B) phosphorus.C) carbon.D) sodium.Answer: C 37) The joining of an enzyme and substrate(s) depends on weak bonds, such asA) hydrogen bonds.B) van der Waals forces.C) hydrophobic interactions.D) all of the above.Answer: D 38) The number of protons consumed by an ATPase per molecule of ATP formed is A) 1.B) 3-4.C) 6-8.D) 10.Answer: B 39) Two specific cellular reactions in a cell which require energy from the proton motive force areA) transport and motility.B) respiration and fermentation.C) biosynthesis and polymerization.D) communication and metabolism.Answer: A 40) One example of an electron acceptor that can be used in anaerobic respiration isA) oxygen.B) water.C) nitrate.D) pyruvate.Answer: C 41) The bulk of a cell's energy expenditure goes toward the synthesis of what macromolecule?A) LipidsB) Nucleic acidsC) PolysaccharidesD) ProteinsAnswer: D 42) Biosynthesis is an energy requiring process.Answer: TRUE 43) A chemotroph uses chemicals for energy, while a phototroph uses light for energy.Answer: TRUE 44) Carbon and nitrogen are considered to be micronutrients.Answer: FALSE 45) All prokaryotes require an organic carbon source.Answer: FALSE 46) Vitamins should not be considered growth factors.Answer: FALSE 47) Most microorganisms have the same general nutritional requirements so most microorganisms can grow on basically the same media.Answer: FALSE 48) Energy is measured in kilojoules.Answer: TRUE 49) In a given chemical reaction, if we know the energy of formation for each of the reactants and each of the products, we can calculate the change in free energy for that reaction.Answer: TRUE 50) Free energy calculations are dependent on the rates of the reactions. Answer: FALSE 51) Enzymes are biological catalysts.Answer: TRUE 52) Theoretically, all enzyme catalyzed reactions are reversible.Answer: TRUE 53) If the name of a compound ends in -ase, it is probably an enzyme.Answer: TRUE 54) If a substance is reduced, it gains electrons.Answer: TRUE 55) The tendency to become oxidized or reduced is expressed as the reduction potential.Answer: TRUE 56) In anabolism, the electron donor is often referred to as an energy source.Answer: FALSE 57) Coenzymes increase the diversity of chemical reactions possible in a cell.Answer: TRUE 58) The energy released from the hydrolysis of coenzyme A is conserved in the synthesis of ATP.Answer: TRUE 59) In substrate-level phosphorylation, ATP stores are depleted during the catabolism of organic compounds.Answer: FALSE 60) All fermentations involve the production of ethanol.Answer: FALSE 61) In electron transport systems, the electron carriers are membrane associated.Answer: TRUE 62) Heme is associated with the quinones.Answer: FALSE 63) During the electron transport process, protons and electrons are separated.Answer: TRUE 64) The net result of electron transport is the generation of a pH gradient and an electrochemical potential across the membrane.Answer: TRUE 65) Inhibitors block electron flow and the establishment of the proton motive force.Answer: TRUE 66) Oxalacetate is important both in the generation of certain amino acids and in the regeneration of glucose.Answer: TRUE 67) Each molecule of FADH yields 3 molecules of ATP.Answer: FALSE 68) The theoretical maximum yield from each molecule of glucose during aerobic respiration is between 30 and 35 molecules of ATP.Answer: FALSE 69) Polysaccharides are key cell wall constituents.Answer: TRUE 70) Amino acids can be grouped into structurally related families.Answer: TRUE 71) Ribonucleotide reductase converts deoxyribose into ribose.Answer: FALSE 72) Inosinic acid is the precursor of the pyrimidines.Answer: FALSE 73) The distinguishing characteristic of an unsaturated fatty acid is the inclusion of one or more double bonds in the hydrophobic portion of the molecule.Answer: TRUE 74) The third carbon of a glycerol backbone usually contains a polar group. This is true of the Bacteria, the Eukarya and the Archaea.Answer: TRUE 75) The term used to refer to all the chemical processes taking place with a cell is __________.Answer: metabolism 76) __________ is the ability to do work.Answer: Energy 77) The __________ required or released to form a given molecule from its constituent elements is called __________.Answer: energy / free energy of formation 78) __________ is the term used to describe the temporary combination of the enzyme and the reactant.Answer: Enzyme substrate complex 79) Most enzymes are named either for the __________ or for the __________.Answer: substrate / type of chemical reaction (either order) 80) Energy released as a result of oxidation-reduction reactions is usually conserved in the form of __________.Answer: high energy phosphate bonds or energy rich storage compounds (either answer) 81) The enzyme responsible for splitting fructose 1,6-bisphosphate is __________.Answer: aldolase 82) The enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of the proton motive force into ATP is __________, a molecule which contains two major parts __________ and __________. This catalysis is known as __________.Answer: ATP synthase (ATPase) / F1F0 / oxidative phosphorylation (first two either order) 83) The process by which organisms synthesize the chemical substances of which they are composed is __________.Answer: anabolism 84) An enzyme that moves an amino group from one molecule to another is known as a __________.Answer: transaminase 85) An enriched medium is a complex medium to which additional nutrients, such as __________ or __________, are added.Answer: serum / whole blood (any order) 86) In biochemistry, oxidations and reductions frequently involve the transfer of an __________ plus a __________.Answer: electron / proton 87) Two mechanisms for energy conservation in chemoorganotrophs are __________ and __________.Answer: fermentation / respiration (either order) 88) With regards to oxygen, glycolysis is an __________ process.Answer: anoxic 89) Metabolic diversity in respiration and photosynthesis revolves around a common process which is generation of a(n) __________.Answer: proton motive force 90) Explain the difference between chemically defined and undefined (complex) media. 91) Explain the circumstances under which the same substance (molecule) can be either an electron donor or an electron acceptor. 92) Explain the difference between fermentation and respiration in terms of electron transfer. 93) Describe the biochemical events found in the Embden-Meyerhof Pathway. Include the major reactants, products, and enzymes. Include such terms as: aldolase, glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate, 1,3-bisphosphoglyceric acid, phosphoenolpyruvate, and pyruvate. 94) Give two reasons why fermentation yields little energy. 95) Explain briefly the biosynthetic and bioenergetic roles of the citric acid cycle. 96) Explain exergonic and endergonic in terms of free energy calculations. 97) Explain what an enzyme must accomplish in order to catalyze a specific reaction. 98) Explain why the amount of energy released in a redox reaction depends on the nature of both the electron donor and the electron acceptor. 99) Discuss why energy yield in an organism undergoing anaerobic respiration is less than that of an organism undergoing aerobic respiration. Chapter 6: Microbial Growth 1) Growth is defined as an increase inA) the size of the individual organisms.B) the number of colonies present in a culture.C) the number of cells in a given locale.D) the life span of the individual cells.Answer: C 2) Which of these environmental factors influences microbial growth?A) pHB) Water availabilityC) OxygenD) All of the aboveAnswer: D 3) Most prokaryotic cellular reproduction is the result of A) conjugation.B) binary fission. C) meiosis.D) mitosis.Answer: B 4) Proteins involved in prokaryotic cell division areA) Fts proteins.B) MreB proteins.C) divisomes.D) none of these.Answer: A 5) The time interval required for the formation of two cells from one is called the A) generation time.B) growth time.C) growth rate.D) all of the above.Answer: A 6) When the population doubles during each given unit of time, the growth is said to beA) linear.B) semilogarithmic.C) exponential.D) cartesian.Answer: C 7) The time between inoculation and the beginning of growth is usually called theA) lag phase.B) log phase.C) dormant phase.D) death phase.Answer: A 8) In general, compared to prokaryotic microorganisms, eukaryotic microorganisms growA) more slowly.B) more rapidly.C) usually at about the same rate.D) at rates that are too variable to make an adequate comparison.Answer: A 9) Cryptic growth occursA) when increases in cell population go unnoticed.B) when the exponential curve is marked by a very long generation time.C) as the number of cells being generated equals the number of cells dying.D) as cells are increasing in size but not in number.Answer: C 10) Population growth is measured byA) changes in the number of cells.B) changes in the weight of the cell mass.C) changes in the number of cells and in the weight of the cell mass.D) changes in the amount of nutrient in the culture medium.Answer: C 11) When doing a colony count, A) it is assumed that each colony arose from only one organism.B) only viable cells are counted.C) the medium must be suitable for colonial growth.D) all of the above.Answer: D 12) For most microbiological purposes, the statistically accurate number of colonies on an agar plate is betweenA) 10 and 100.B) 20 and 200.C) 30 and 300.D) 10 and 1000.Answer: C 13) Serial dilutions are generally madeA) to achieve a statistically accurate number of colonies.B) based on powers of 10, although other serial dilution factors are possible.C) when accurate counts cannot be otherwise obtained.D) all of the above.Answer: D 14) The number of colonies obtained in a plate count does not depend onA) inoculum size.B) size of the colonies.C) type of culture medium.D) length of incubation.Answer: B 15) Cell density in a chemostat is controlled byA) the concentration of the limiting nutrient.B) the dilution factor.