(Test Bank) Essentials of Genetics

William, 8

Biology

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8th Edition

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Essentials of Genetics 8th Edition Test Bank by William (All Chapters Covered ) Essentials of Genetics 8th Edition Test Bank by William Multiple Choice 1) A protein is 300 amino acids long. Which of the following could be the number of nucleotides in the section of DNA that codes for this protein? ( Remember: DNA is double -stranded.) E) 1800 2) A short segment of an mRNA molecule is shown below. The polypeptide it codes for is also shown: 5′-AUGGUGCUGAAG : methionine -valine -leucine -lysine Assume that a mutation in the DNA occurs so that the fourth base (counting from the 5′ end) of the messen ger RNA now reads A rather than G. What sequence of amino acids will the mRNA now code for? (You do not need a copy of the genetic code to answer the question.) E) methionine -methionine -leucine -lysine 3) The term peptidyl transferase relates to . B) peptide bond formation during protein synthesis 4) Which of the following are among the major components of prokaryotic ribosomes? C) 16S rRNA, 5S rRNA, and 23S rRNA 5) The one-gene:one -enzyme hypothesis emerged from work on which two organisms? 1. A) coli and yeast 2. B) Drosophila and humans 3. C) Neurospora and Drosophila 4. D) coli and humans 5. E) All of the answers listed are correct. 6) By their experimentation using the Neurospora fungus, Beadle and Tatum were able to propose the far-reaching hypothesis that . C) the role of a specific gene is to produce a specific enzyme 7) The β chain of adult hemoglobin is composed of 146 amino acids of a known sequence. In comparing the normal β chain with the β chain in sickle cell hemoglobin, what alteration is one likely to find? B) glutamic acid replacing valine in the first position 8) The primary structure of a protein is determined by . A) the sequence of amino acids 9) Which protein class directly controls many of the metabolic reactions within a cell? D) enzymes 10) The secondary structure of a protein includes . C) α-helix and β-pleated sheet 11) Side groups of amino acids are typically classified under which of the following? A) polar, nonpolar 12) Nutritional mutations can be defined as . A) those mutations that do not allow a bacterium or fungus to grow on minimal medium but do allow growth on complete medium 2) Conditional mutations are more likely to result from a mutation caused by which of the following alterations to the coding region of a gene? E) tautomeric shift 3) A class of mutations that results in multiple contiguous amino acid changes in proteins i s likely to be which of the following? D) frameshift 4) Two formal terms used to describe categories of mutational nucleotide substitutions in DNA are . C) transversions and transitions 5) Mutations that arise in nature, from no particular artificial agent, are called . C) spontaneous mutations 6) Which of the following name two mutagens that would be classified as base analogs? D) 5-bromouracil and 2-amino purine 7) Ultraviolet light causes pyrimidine dimers to form in DNA. Some individuals are genetically incapable of repairing some dimers at “normal” rates. Such individuals are likely to suffer from . A) xeroderma pigmentosum 8) Transposons, or jumping genes, are DNA elements that move within the genome. In which organismic groups are transposons found? A) bacteria B) eukaryotes C) mammals D) ancient bacteria E) all organismic groups 9) All insertion sequences (IS elements) contain two features that are essential for their movement. What are these two elements? A) transposase and inverted terminal repeats 10) Some bacterial transposons, known as Tn elements, are larger than insertion seque nces (IS elements) and contain protein -coding genes that have human health significance. What might such a bacterial transposon contain? A) drug resistance 11) Barbara McClintock discovered mobile elements in corn by analyzing the genetic behavior of two elements, Ds and Ac. The interplay between these two elements has become one of the most interesting stories of discovery in the field of genetics. How do Ds and Ac interact? C) Ds moves only if Ac is present in the genome; Ac is capable of autonomous movement. 1) Which term would be applied to a regulatory condition that occurs when protein is associated with a particular section of DNA and greatly reduces transcription? A) negative control 2) Which term refers to a contiguous genetic complex that is under coordina ted control? C) operon 3) Which term most appropriately refers to a regulatory protein in prokaryotes? C) DNA binding protein 4) In the lac operon, the product of structural gene lacZ is capable of . D) splitting the β-linkage of lactose 5) Which of the following terms best characterizes catabolite repression associated with the lac operon in E. coli? D) positive contro l 6) When referring to attenuation in regulation of the trp operon, it would be safe to say that when there are high levels of tryptophan available to the organism, . C) transcriptional termination is likely 7) Genetic regulation in eukaryotes can take place at a variety of levels from transcriptional to posttranslational. At what level is genetic regulation considered most likely in prokaryotes? A) transcriptiona l 8) Regarding eukaryotic and prokaryotic g enetic regulation, what process seems to be the most similar between the two? A) transcriptional regulation 9) DNA methylation may be a significant mode of genetic regulation in eukaryotes. Methylation refers to . E) addition of methyl groups to the cytosine of CG doublets 10) Which of the following clusters of terms applies when addressing enhancers as elements associated with eukaryotic genetic regulation? A) cis-acting, variable orientation, variable position 11) Two modular elements that appear as consensus sequences upstream from RNA polymerase II transcription start sites are . C) TATA and CAAT 1) Driver mutations provide a growth advantage to a tumor cell. Which type of mutation is known to accumulate in cancer cells but has no direct contribution to the cancer phenotype? B) passenger mutations 2) Which of the following three general mechanisms app ear to be involved in the conversion of proto - oncogenes to oncogenes? A) point mutations, translocations, overexpression 3) Which protein combines with cyclins to exert local control of the cell cycle? A) cyclin -dependent kinase 4) A protein that functions as a cell -cycle regulator causes cell death (apoptosis) under high sunlight exposure. Which symbol given to this protein? D) p53 5) The retinoblastoma protein (pRB), like p53, serves as a(n) in regulating the cell cycle. A) tumor suppressor 6) Mutant versions of genes that are normally involved in promoting the cell cycle are known as . C) oncogenes 7) In sporadic cases of retinoblastoma, how many gene mutations are thought to be necessary in the same cell for a tumor to develop? B) two 8) Which protein appears to regulate the entry of cells into an S phase? This protein is also known as the “guardian of the genome.” D) p53 Chapter 1 Introduction to Genetics 1) What is the name of the company or institution that has access to the health, genealogical, and genetic information of approximately 270,000 residents of Iceland? 1. A) National Institutes of Health 2. B) deCODE 3. C) Gattaca 4. D) Biogen 5. E) American Cancer Society 2) A biotechnology company, deCODE, is in the process of creating a database that contains . 1. A) the gene sequences of all newborns in the United States beginning in 2006 2. B) a compilation of all the known genes in humans throughout the free world 3. C) health, genealogical, and genetic information of approximately 270,000 residents of Iceland 4. D) a complete sequence of the human genome 5. E) all the information available on the human genome project 3) Why did deCODE select Iceland for its ambitious research project? 1. A) a relatively low degree of genetic diversity 2. B) frequent and extensive mutational bursts 3. C) high genetic diversity 4. D) lack of genealogical information 5. E) virtual absence of mutation 4) Many species have two representatives of each chromosome. In such species, the characteristic number of chromosomes is called the number. It is usually symbolized as . 1. A) haploid; n 2. B) haploid; 2n 3. C) diploid; 2n 4. D) diploid; n 5. E) None of the answers listed is correct. 5) Genetics is the study of . 1. A) heredity and variation 2. B) mutation and recession 3. C) transcription and translation 4. D) diploid and haploid 5. E) replication and recombination 6) The genetic material DNA consists of basic subunits called . 1. A) mitochondria 2. B) lysosomes 3. C) centrioles 4. D) nucleotides 5. E) None of the answers listed is correct. 7) The immediate product of transcription is . 1. A) a phospholipid 2. B) an amino acid 3. C) a protein 4. D) a carbohydrate 5. E) RNA 8) Genetics is commonly grouped into several general areas: transmission, molecular, and population/evolution. Which biological processes are studied in transmission genetics? Answer: Mendelian inheritance (segregation and independent assortment), modification of Mendelian patterns. Section: Introduction 9) Which theory postulates that an organism is derived from materials originally present in the egg that eventually differe ntiate into adult structures during development? 10) What is meant by the term gene ? 11) What term refers to the similarity between parents and offspring, and what term refers to the lack of similarity between parents and offspring? 12) Early in the twentieth century, Walter Sutton and Theodor Boveri noted that the behavior of chromosomes during meiosis is identical to the behavior of genes during gamete formation. They proposed that genes are carried on chromosomes, which led to the basis of the . 13) What is a mutation? 14) What is a simple definition of an allele? 15) Until the mid -1940s, many scientists considered proteins to be the likely candidates for the genetic material. Why? 16) Name the individual who, while working with the garden pea in the mid -1850s, demonstrated quantitative patterns of heredity and develope d a theory involving the behavior of hereditary factors. 17) What does the term genetics mean? 18) Name the substance that serves as the hereditary material in eukaryotes and prokaryotes. 19) Name two individuals who provided the conceptual basis for our present understanding that genes are on chromosomes. 20) What term is used to describe the fact that different genes in an organism often provide differences in observable features? 21) Name one of the botanists who, in 1900, rediscovered the work of Gregor Mendel. 22) Alternative forms of a gene are called . 23) The various characteristics of organisms that result from their genetic makeup are collectively referred to as an organism’s . 24) A fundamental property of DNA’s nitrogenous bases that is necessary for the double -stranded nature of its structure is . 25) In nonviral systems, what is the nature of the hereditary substance? 26) Name the bases in DNA and their pairing specificities. 27) What is meant by the term genetic code ? 28) Compare and contrast nonenzymatic and enzymatic proteins. 29) List the two relatively complex processes in which genetic information is converted into functional products. 30) What is meant by the phrase the central dogma of molecular genetics ? 31) What is the composition of the genetic material? 32) What is meant by complementation in terms of the structure of DNA? 33) Reference is often made to adapter molecules when describing protein synthesis in that they allow amino acids to associate with nucleic acids. To what class of molecules does this term refer? 34) Given that DNA is the genetic material in prokaryotes and eukaryotes, what other general structures (macromolecules) and substances made by the cell are associated with the expression of that genetic material? 35) What is another term for a biologic al catalyst? 36) Research dealing with which human blood disorder was instrumental in linking the genotype to a specific phenotype, and what conclusion was reached? 37) Distinguish the functions of DNA and RNA in a eukaryote. 38) Recombinant DNA technology is dependent on a particular class of enzymes, known as , that cuts DNA at specific nucleotide sequences. 39) In 1996, a cloning experiment produced the sheep named Dolly. Contrary to the more traditional method of cloning by embryo splitting, Dolly was produced by which procedure? 40) What is meant by the term genome ? 41) Who owns transgenic organisms? 42) What was the purpose of genetically modifying the following plants: corn, soybeans, rice, cotton, sugar beets, and canola? 43) What term is applied to a variety of projects whereby genome sequences are deposited in databases for research purposes? 44) By 2003, the completed sequencing of the gene -containing portion of the human genome was published by two groups: the publicly funded and a private company. 45) A number of genomes have been sequenced in recent years: Escherichia coli, Saccharomyces cerevisi ae, Caenorhabditis elegans , Drosophila melanogaster , and Mus musculus . What are the common names for these organisms? 46) What is the precise change in amino acid content between normal hemoglobin and sickle -cell hemoglobin? 47) Organisms that are well understood from a scientific standpoint and are often used in basic biological research are called . 48) Arabidopsis is a model organism for the study of . 49) Archeological evidence indicates that the earliest domestication of plants and animals occurred within the past 2000 years. 50) Darwin’s theory of evolution is based on the phenomenon of natural selection. 51) According to Charles Darwin, animals and plants have remained unchanged since their appearance on Earth. 52) Complementation in a genetic sense refers to the polymerization of nucleotides in DNA. 53) Once produced, a transgenic plant or animal can be patented. 54) Bioinformatics is a discipline involved in the development of hardware and software for processing, storing, and retrieving nucleotide and protein data. Essentials of Genetics, 8e (Klug) Chapter 2 Mitosis and Meiosis 1) During interphase of the cell cycle, . 1. A) DNA recombines 2. B) sister chromatids move to opposite poles 3. C) the nuclear membrane disappears 4. D) RNA replicates 5. E) DNA content essentially doubles 2) If a typical somatic cell has 64 chromosomes, how many chromosomes are expected in each gamete of that organism? 1. A) 8 2. B) 16 3. C) 32 4. D) 64 5. E) 128 3) In an organism with 52 chromosomes, how many bivalents would be expected to form during meiosis? 1. A) 13 2. B) 26 3. C) 52 4. D) 104 5. E) 208 Answer: B Section: 2.4 4) The ant Myrmecia pilosula is found in Australia and is named bulldog because of its aggressive behavior. It is particularly interesting because it carries all its genetic information in a single pair of chromosomes. In other words, 2 n= 2. (Males are haploid and have just one chromo some.) Which of the following figures would most likely represent a correct configuration of chromosomes in a metaphase I cell of a female? 1. A) A 2. B) B 3. C) C 4. D) D 5. E) E 5) For the purposes of this question, assume that a G1 somatic cell nucleus in a female Myrmecia pilosula contains 2 picograms of DNA. How much DNA would be expected in a metaphase I cell of a female? 1. A) 16 picograms 2. B) 32 picograms 3. C) 8 picograms 4. D) 4 picograms 5. E) Not enough information is provided to answer the question. 6) An interesting group of ants consists of several virtually identical, closely related species, with females having chromosome numbers of 18, 20, 32, 48, 60, 62, and 64. If one crossed a female of species (A) with 32 chromosomes and a male species (B) with 9 chromosomes (males are haploid, and each gamete contains the n complement), how many chromosomes would one expect in the body (somatic) cells of the female offspring? 4. A) 4.5 5. B) 9 6. C) 25 7. D) 32 8. E) 41 7) What is the outcome of synapsis, a significant event in meiosis? 1. A) side-by-side alignment of nonhomologous chromosomes 2. B) dyad formation 3. C) monad movement to opposite poles 4. D) side-by-side alignment of homologous chromosomes 5. E) chiasma segregation 8) In a healthy male, how many sperm cells would be expected to form from (a) 400 primary spermatocytes? (b) 400 secondary spermatocytes? 1. A) (a) 800; (b) 800 2. B) (a) 1600; (b) 1600 3. C) (a) 1600; (b) 800 4. D) (a) 400; (b) 400 5. E) (a) 100; (b) 800 9) In a healthy female, how many secondary oocytes would be expected to form from 100 primary oocytes? How many first polar bodies would be expected from 100 primary oocytes? 1. A) 200; 50 2. B) 100; 50 3. C) 200; 300 4. D) 100; 100 5. E) 50; 50 10) Which type of cell structure is the nucleolus organizer (NOR) responsible for producing? 11) Name two cellular organelles, each having genetic material, that are involved in either photosynthesis or respiration. 12) List four terms used to describe the normal morphologies, with respect to arm ratio, of eukaryotic chromosomes. 13) Homologous chromo somes can be matched by their similar structure and function within a nucleus. Which chromosomes making up a genome do not follow the same characteristics of homology? 14) How many haploid sets of chromosomes are present in a diploid individual cell with a chromosome number of 46? 32? 15) How many haploid sets of chromosomes are present in an individual cell that is tetraploid (4n)? 16) In which stage of the cell cycle is G0 located? 17) When cells withdraw from the continuous cell cycle and enter a “quiescent” phase, which stage are they said to be in? 18) The house fly, Musca domestica , has a haploid chromosome number of 6. How many chromatids should be present in a diploid, somatic, metaphase cell? 19) Regarding the mitotic cell cycle, what is meant by a checkpoint? 20) After which meiotic stage (meiosis I or II) would one expect monads to be formed? 21) Assume that the somatic cells of a male contain one pair of homologous chromosomes (e.g., AaAb) and an additional chromosome without a homolog (e.g., W). Which chromosomal combinations would be expected in the meiotic products (spermatids) of a single prim ary spermatocyte? (There may be more than one answer.) 22) The accompanying sketch depicts a cell from an organism in which 2 n = 2 and each chromosome is metacentric. (a) Circle the correct stage for the cell in this sketch: anaphase of mitosis anaphase of meiosis I anaphase of meiosis II telophase of mitosis (b) Given that each G1 nucleus from this organism contains 16 picograms of DNA, how many picograms of chromosomal DNA would you expect in the cell shown here? (b) 16 Section: 2.2, 2.4 23) You may have heard through various media of an animal alleged to be the hybrid of a rabbit and a cat. Given that the cat ( Felis domesticus ) has a diploid chromosome number of 38 and a rabbit (Oryctolagus cuniculus ) has a diploi d chromosome number of 44, what would be the expected chromosome number in the somatic tissues of this alleged hybrid? 24) The horse ( Equus caballus ) has 32 pairs of chromosomes, whereas the donkey ( Equus asinus ) has 31 pairs of chromosomes. How many chromosomes would be expected in the somatic tissue of a mule? 25) Name two evolutionarily significant benefits of meiosis that are not present in mitosis. 26) What is meant by the term chiasma ? 27) List in order of occurrence the phases of mitosis. Section: 2.4 28) The two terms reductional and equational generally refer to which stages of meiosis (I or II)? 29) Trisomy 21 or Down syndrome occurs when there is a normal diploid chromosomal complement of 46 chromosomes plus one (extra) chromosome 21. Such individuals therefore have 47 chromosomes. Assume that a mating occurs between a female with Down syndrome and a normal 46-chromosome male. What proportion of the offspring would be expected to have Down syndrome? Justify your answer. 30) Normal diploid somatic (body) cells of the mosquito Culex pipiens contain six chromosomes. Assign the symbols AmAp, BmBp, and C mCp to the three homologous chromosomal pairs. The “m” superscript indicates that the homolog is maternally derived; the “p” indicates a paternally derived homolog. Assume that in the genus Culex, the sex chromosomes are morphologically identical. (a) For each of the cell types given below, draw and label (with reference to the symbols defined above) an expected chromosomal configuration. mitotic metaphase metaphase of meiosis I metaphase of meiosis II (b) The stage at which “sister chromatids go to opposite poles” immediately follows which of the stages listed in (a)? (c) Assuming that all nuclear DNA is restricted to chromosomes and that the amount of nuclear DNA essentially doubles during the S phase of i nterphase, how much nuclear DNA would be present in each cell listed in part (a)? Note : Assume that the G1 nucleus of a mosquito cell contains 3.0 X 10 - 12 grams of DNA. (d) Given that the sex of Culex is determined by alleles of one gene, males heterozygo us, Mm, and females homozygous, mm, illustrate a labeled chromosomal configuration (involving the symbols AmAp, BmBp, and CmCp and the M locus) in a primary spermatocyte at metaphase. Assume that the M locus is on the AmAp chromosome and that crossing over has not occurred between the M locus and the centromere. 31) Drosophila melanogaster , the fruit fly, has a 2 n chromosome number of 8. Assume that you are microscopically examining the mitotic and meiotic cells of this organism. You note that in the female, two chromosomal pairs are metacentric and two pairs are acrocentric. (a) Draw the chromosomal configurations as you would expect to see them at the stages listed: mitotic metaphase first polar body (metaphase) primary oocyte (metaphase) ootid (G1) secondary oocyte (metaphase) (b) Given that the previously mentioned cells are fr om individuals heterozygous for two independently segregating, autosomal loci, plum eyes and curled wings , place appropriate symbols (of your designation) on chromosomes in the drawings you made for part (a). Assume no crossing over, and there may be more than one correct answer in some cases. (c) Assuming that a somatic G2 nucleus from the individuals mentioned above contains about 8.0 picograms of DNA, how much nuclear DNA would you expect in each of the cells mentioned in part (a)? 32) Down syndrome, or trisomy 21, in humans is caused by an extra copy of the relatively small, acrocentric 21. Including only chromosome 21, the X chromosome (medium in size and somewhat metacentric), and the Y chromosome (small and acrocentric), draw one pos sible array of chromosomes in the four sperm cells produced by the complete meiosis of one primary spermatocyte. For the purposes of this question, assume that males with Down syndrome produce normal ratios of sperm cells. (More than one answer is possible .) 33) Assume that an organism has a diploid chromosome number of 6. Two chromosomal pairs are telocentric, and the other pair is metacentric. Assume that the sex chromosomes are morphologically identical. Draw chromosomes as you would expect them to appear at the following stages: primary oocyte (metaphase) secondary spermatocyte (metaphase) first polar body (metaphase) 34) There is about as much nuclear DNA in a primary spermatocyte as in (how many) spermatids? 35) List, in order of appearance, all the cell types expected to be formed during (a) spermatogenesis and (b) oogenesis. 36) If a typical G1 nucleus is 2 n and contains 2C (two complements) of DNA, a prophase I cell is 2n and contains 4C of DNA. 37) S phase is the part of interphase when DNA duplication takes place. 38) The centromere of a chromosome separates during anaphase. 39) A chromosome may contain one or two chromatids in different phases of the mitotic or meiotic cell cycle. 40) If a typical G1 nucleus contains 2C (two complements) of DNA, a gamete that is haploid ( n) contains 1C of DNA. 41) During meiosis, chromosome number reduction takes place in anaphase II. 42) A bivalent at pachytene contains four chromatids. 43) The meiotic cell cycle involves two cell divisions but only one DNA replication. 44) An organism with a haploid number of 10 will produce 1024 combinations of chromosomes at the end of meiosis. 45) An organism with a diploid chromosome number of 46 will produce 223 combinations of chromosomes at the end of meiosis. Essentials of Genetics , 8 (Klug) Chapter 3 Mendelian Genetics 1) Name the single individual whose work in the mid -1800s contributed to our understanding of the particulate nature of inheritance as well as the basic genetic transmission patterns. With which organism did this person work? 1. A) Gregor Mendel; Pisum sativum 2. B) George Beadle; Neurospora 3. C) Thomas Hunt Morgan; Drosophila 4. D) Calvin Bridges; Drosophila 5. E) Boris Ephrussi; Ephestia 2) A recessive allele in tigers causes the white tiger. If two normally pigmented tigers are mated and produce a white offspring, what percentage of their remaining offspring would be expected to have normal pigmentati on? 1. A) 25% 2. B) 50% 3. C) about 66% 4. D) 75% 5. E) about 90% 3) Polydactyly is expressed when an individual has extra fingers and/or toes. Assume that a man with six fingers on each hand and six toes on each foot marries a woman with a normal number of digits. Having extra digits is caused by a dominant allele. The cou ple has a son with normal hands and feet, but the couple’s second child has extra digits. What is the probability that their next child will have polydactyly? 1. A) 1/32 2. B) 1/8 3. C) 7/16 4. D) 1/2 5. E) 3/4 4) Tightly curled or wooly hair is caused by a dominant gene in humans. If a heterozygous curly - haired person marries a person with straight hair, what percentage of their offspring would be expected to have straight hair? 1. A) 25%straight 2. B) 50% straight 3. C) 75% straight 4. D) 100% straight 5. E) It is impossible to predict the outcome. 5) Which types of phenotypic ratios are likely to occur in crosses when dealing with a single gene pair for which all the genotypic combinations are of equal viability? 1. A) 9:3:3:1, 27:9:9:9:3:3:3:1 2. B) 1:2:1, 3:1 3. C) 1:4:6:4:1, 1:1:1:1 4. D) 12:3:1, 9:7 5. E) 2:3, 1:2 6) Assume that a black guinea pig crossed with an albino guinea pig produced 5 black offspring. When the albino was crossed with a second black guinea pig, 4 black and 3 albino offspring were produced. What genetic explanation would apply to these data? 1. A) albino = recessive; black = recessive 2. B) albino = dominant; black = incompletely dominant 3. C) albino and black = codominant 4. D) albino = recessive; black = dominant 5. E) None of the answers listed are correct. 7) The fundamental Mendelian process that involves the separation of contrasting genetic elements at the same locus is called . 1. A) segregation. 2. B) independent assortment 3. C) continuous variation 4. D) discontinuous variation 5. E) dominance or recessiveness 8) Which of the following groups of scientists were influential around the year 1900 in setting the stage for our present understanding of transmission genetics? 1. A) Beadle, Tatum, Lederberg 2. B) Watson, Crick, Wilkins, Franklin 3. C) deVries, Correns, Tschermak, Sutton, Boveri 4. D) Darwin, Mendel, Lamarck 5. E) Hippocrates, Aristotle, Kolreuter 9) The Chi -square test involves a statistical comparison between measured (observed) and predicted (expected) values. One generally determines degrees of freedom as . 1. A) the number of categories being compared 2. B) one less than the number of classes being compared 3. C) one more than the number of classes being compared 4. D) ten minus the sum of the two categories 5. E) the sum of the two categories 10) According to Mendel’s model, because of , all possible combinations of gametes will be formed in equal frequency. 11) Assume that in a series of experiments, plants with round seeds were crossed with plants with wrinkled seeds and the following offspring were obtained: 220 round and 180 wrinkled. (a) What is the most probable genotype of each parent? (b) What genotypic and phenotypic ratios are expected? (c) Based on the information provided in part (b), what are the expected (theoretical) numbers of progeny (400 total) of each phenotypic class? 12) In peas, gray seed color is dominant to white. For the purposes of this question, assume that Mendel crossed plants with gray seeds with each other and the following progeny were produced: 320 gray and 80 white. (a) What is the most probable genotype of each parent? (b) What genotypic and phenotypic ratios are expected in the progeny of such a cross? 13) Assume that you have a garden and some pea plants have solid leaves and others have striped leaves. You conduct a series of crosses [(a) through (e)] and obtain the results given in the table. Cross Progeny solid striped