(Test Bank) Chapter 52: Care of the Patient with a Sensory Disorder, Exams for Nursing

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1/160 Nursing Test Banks Chapter 52: Care of the Patient with a Sensory Disorder, Exams for Nursing A nurse may practice in another state if he or she passed the NCLEX -PN examination in the nurse’s own state and meets the other state’s educational requirements. What is the process to transferring licensure from one state to another called? A. Auxiliary B. Endorsement C. Qualified licensure D. Co-licensure What is the name of licensing law defines the title and regulations governing the practice of nursing and states the requirements for licensure? A. State practice act B. Legislative act C. Nursing regulation act D. Nurse practice act Which employment setting would likely a daytime schedule with weekends off, and would focus on prevention and patient teaching? A. Health care provider’s office B. Long -term care C. Hospice setting D. Adult day care Which health care employment setting would provide the nurse a very good salary, the opportunity to refuse to take an assignment, and more flexibility in the personal schedule but with an uncertainty or work availability? A. Adult day care center B. Long -term care center C. Outpatient clinic D. Temporary agency In what employment setting does the nurse give total care to one patient; is totally independent; provides care in the home, hospital, or other facility; is paid directly by the patient; and is legally responsib le for his r her own actions? A. Patient care nursing B. Private duty nursing C. Home health nursing D. Agency care nursing A new graduate who has achieved the goal of getting others to do something that is believed necessary demonstrated what skill? A. Leadership B. Control C. Influence D. Management What is the correct term for a concise, one-or two-page summary of educational and work experience, activities and honors, and concrete skills and interests? 2/160 A. Composite B. Letter of application C. Resume D. Review What is another term for promotion? A. Reward B. Reciprocity C. Advancement D. Lift When a resume reflects too many jobs changes, the employer may question it. How long should an employee remain at the first place of employment? A. 1 year B. 2 years C. 6 months D. 3 months Technical and scientific changes have resulted in a multiplicity and complexity of functions placed on nursed, and sometimes jobs description have not been rewritten. What is true of the role of the LPN/LVN? A. It is constantly changing B. It is constantly growing C. It is constantly improving D. It is constantly enlarging Exam #1 Repro What are some advantage of a vaginal hysterectomy over the abdominal hysterectomy? (SATA) A. Less postoperative discomfort B. Reduced hospital stay C. Less expensive D. Better visualization of the intrapelvic area E. Faster recovery What does the diagnosis of secondary infertility refer to? A. Has never conceived B. Is infertile because of repeated infection C. Has conceived but is now unable to do so D. Is over the age of 38 The nurse provides discharge teaching for a patient regarding her activity level as she recovers form her modified radical mastectomy . Which statement by her indicates to the nurse that the teaching has been successful? A. “I should sleep on the sleep on the side opposite my mastectomy.” B. “I should keep my right arm supported in a sling when I am up and around until my incision is healed.” 3/160 C. “I can do whatever exercise and activities I want as long as I don’t elevate my right hand above my head.” D. “I should take aspirin before moving or exercising my arm to prevent pain during the exercises.” A male patient, age 23, seeks care at the health clinic because he has developed a profuse, purulent urethral discharge and urination is painful . During assessment of the patient, it is most important that the nurse gather information related to his history of: A. Recent urinary infections B. Episodes of prostatitis C. Contagious diseases like mumps D. Present and past sexual partners, and notifying them to get treatment. Why is a mammogram the most useful method of diagnosing breast cancer? A. It is the most reliable method of detecting breast cancer before it becomes palpable. B. It is inexpensive and covered by most medical insurance plans C. It involves no radiation and takes only a few minutes D. It involves no pain or discomfort and is readily available Which condition would prevent the use of a vaginal hysterectomy ? A. A woman with more than four pregnancies B. Large uterine fibroids C. Menorrhagia for over 6 months D. Women over the age of 50 Which statement made by a patient who has been taught the technique of testicular self-examination indicates the need for further teaching ? A. “The testes feel smooth and egg-shaped.” B. “The best time to perform TSE is after a shower.” C. “I will examine my scrotum after every ejaculation.” D. “The epididymis feels a soft tube.” A patient, age 41, has had a total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo -oophorectomy for endometriosis . She asks the nurse if she will have “Hot Flashes.” What knowledge will guide the nurse’s response? A. Only the uterus was removed, and the ovaries are still producing estrogen and she will not have hot flashes. B. The patient is too young to have hot flashes associated with menopause. C. The patient will have surgically induced menopause and may have hot flashes. D. The uterus and fallopian tubes were removed, and she will not experience “hot flashes.” 4/160 A Gram stain smear of the patient’s discharge reveals the presence of N. gonorrhoeae. He tells the nurse that he had sexual contact with a new girlfriend but does not think he was exposed to gonorrhea because she did not appear to have any disease. Which information should the nurse include in response to his comment? A. “Women do not develop gonorrhea infections but can serve as carriers to spread the disease to males.” B. “When gonorrhea infection occurs in women, the disease affects only in ovaries.” C. “Many women are not aware that they have gonorrhea because they often do not have symptoms.” D. “Women develop subclinical cases of gonorrhea that do not cause tissue damage or symptoms.” What instruction should a nurse give a patient with congenital herpes who does not have lesions at the present ? A. “Continued use of acyclovir (Zovirax) will prevent reinfection by the virus.” B. “Condoms should be used during all sexual activity to prevent transmission of the virus.” C. “Acyclovir ointment should be applied to the lesions to increase comfort and speed healing.” D. “Recurrent genital herpes is promoted by any sexual stimulation.” A patient, age 26, has had a tubal insufflation (Robin test) to ascertain whether her fallopian tubes are patent. She complains of pain in her right shoulder. Which response is most appropriate? A. “Don’t worry, that is a normal reaction.” B. “I’ll report the findings immediately to the head nurse.” C. ” That is a symptom that resulted from your position on the operating table.” D. “That is from the carbon dioxide passing from the fallopian tubes into your abdomen.” Why so false -negative results in mammography occur in specific age group? A. Older women have greater density of breast tissue. B. Older women have less density of breast tissue. C. Younger women have greater density of breast tissue D. Younger women have less density of breast tissue. Why would the nurse encourage that patient who is recovering from a modified radical mastectomy to exercise the effected arm? A. To reduce pain B. To stimulate appetite C. To reduce lymphedema D. To increase muscle tension A 20-year -old patient presents in the emergency room with a temperature of 103 F, blood pressure of 92/58, headache, and desquamation of both palms . What should the nurse make sure about during the interview? A. Any recent traveling outside the country B. Immunization against influenza C. Method of birth control D. Use of tampons The patient, age 52, is recovering from a modified radical mastectomy . Why is postoperative elevation of the patient’s arm important after this procedure? A. To prevent vascular and lymph stasis, thus lymphedema B. To prevent drainage accumulation at the incisional site C. To prevent pleural effusion and respiratory distress D. To prevent wound infection and dehiscence 5/160 What is the recommended age range for a baseline mammogram ? A. 25 and 30 years B. 31 and 34 years C. 35 and 39 years D. 40 and 45 years When should postmenopausal women be instructed to perform breast self-examination (BSE)? A. On the same date of their choice each month B. Every 3 months C. Every day, because they are at high risk for breast cancer D. Whenever they begin to take estrogen supplements Which patient is most at risk for the infection of epididymitis ? A. 17-year -old athlete who trains for several hours a day B. 22-year -old who has been exposed to mumps C. 45-years -old who was circumcised at the age 10 D. 50-year -old who has smoked for 30 years The patient with a swollen scrotum is amazed that diagnosis of the condition of hydrocele is such a simple thing as: A. Placing the scrotum and a warm pad. B. Shining light through the scrotum C. Squatting and letting the scrotum hang dependently D. Packing the scrotum in ice. The 69-year -old patient laughs at the nurse when the nurse suggests that she have a Pap smear and says, “I had my uterus removed except for the cervix 30 years ago and I am almost 70. Why in the wor ld would I want to get a Pap smear at my age.” What is the nurse’s most informative reply? A. “All persons who have a cervix remaining should be screened up to the age of 75.” B. “Well, you have one more year to get a Pap Smear.” C. “My goodness, you look so young I thought you were still in the age bracket for a regular Pap screens.” D. “You are right. If you had not trouble do far, there is no need to so the smear.” Quiz # 2 Med Surge III neuro Which question is likely to elicit the most valid response from the patient who is being interviewed about a neurologic problem ? A. “Do you have any sensations of pins and needles in your feet?” B. “Does the pain radiate from your back into your leg?” 6/160 C. “Can you describe the sensations you are having?” D. “Do you ever have any nausea or dizziness?” How would the nurse instruct a patient with Parkinson disease to improve activity level ? A. To use a soft mattress to relax the spine B. To walk with a shuffling gait to avoid tripping C. To walk with hands clasped behind back to help balance D. To sit in hard chair with arms for posture control What is the early sign of increased intracranial pressure in the brain injured patient? A. Pupil changes B. Ipsilateral paralysis C. Vomiting D. Decrease in the level of consciousness Which of the following techniques are necessary for safely feeding a hemiplegic patient ? (SATA) A. Mixing liquids and solid foods together B. Taking the patient’s dentures out to prevent chocking C. Checking the affected side of mouth for food accumulation D. Offering small bites of food E. Elevating the patient to no more than 30 degrees F. Adding a thickening agent to liquids What does the nurse know about the stroke patient who has expressive aphasia ? A. Has difficulty comprehending spoken and written communication B. Cannot make any vocals sounds C. Has total loss and comprehension of language D. Can understand the spoken word, but cannot speak What should the nurse do when the child arrives on the floor with the diagnosis of bacterial meningitis ? A. Arrange for humidified oxygen per mask B. Place the child in respiratory isolation C. Inquire about drug allergy D. Hold NPO until orders arrive What are the three signs of crushing response ? (SATA) A. Increased pulse rate 7/160 B. Widened pulse pressure C. Bradycardia D. Increased systolic blood pressure E. Uncontrolled thermoregulation What are the effects of normal aging on the nervous system? (SATA) A. Small vessel occlusion B. Loss of neurons C. Calcification of cerebrum D. Reduction of cerebral blood flow E. Decrease in oxygen use What is the cranial nerve that supplies most of the organs in the thoracic and abdominal cavities and also carries motor fibers to gland that produces digestive juices and other secretions? A. Somatic motor nerve B. Visceral sensory nerve C. Abducens nerve D. Vagus nerve What is the first sign of Bell’s palsy? A. Inability to wrinkle forehead and pucker lips on effected side B. Sudden pain in nostril on affected side C. Excessive salivation on the affected side D. Excessive mucus running from nostril on the affected side Quiz # 3 Sensory The test for macular degeneration is: A. Snellen test B. Tonometry C. Amsler grid D. Schirmer’s test Impairment vision due to age is called: A. Myopia B. Hyperopia C. Presbyopia D. Presbycusis 8/160 When eyeball is too short , the person will have: A. Myopia B. Hyperopia C. Presbyopia D. Presbycusis An unequal curve in the shape of the cornea or lens that cause blurred vision, is called: A. Astigmatism B. Strabismus C. Amblyopia D. Nystagmus An uncorrectable decrease in the vision in one or both eyes with no apparent structural abnormality seen to explain it, is : A. Astigmatism B. Strabismus C. Amblyopia D. Nystagmus What is the first indication of macular degeneration? A. The loss of peripheral vision B. The loss of central vision C. The loss of color discrimination D. Eye fatigue What should the nurse remind the hearing aid wearer to do when the nurse hears a whistling hearing aid? A. Reinsert the ear mold B. Change the battery C. Recharge the hearing aid D. Wash the ear mold with warm water When the patient in the emergency room complains of seeing flashing lights and a certain down over his right eye, the nurse recognizes this as a symptom of which condition? A. Macular degeneration B. Early signs of cataract 9/160 C. Detached retina D. Diabetic retinopathy Separates external ear from middle ear is: A. Tympanic membrane B. Eustachian tube C. Oval window D. Ossicles In the middle ear, you will find (SATA) A. Vestibule B. Cochlea C. Malleus D. Mastoid E. Stapes Exam # 2 Med surge III: Neurosensory What does the nurse know about the stroke patient who has expressive aphasia? A. Has difficulty comprehending spoken and written communication B. Cannot make any vocal sounds C. Has total loss and comprehension of language D. Can understand the spoken word, but cannot speak What are the three signs of Cushing response? (SATA) A. Increased pulse rate B. Widened pulse pressure C. Increased blood pressure D. Bradycardia E. Increased systolic blood pressure F. Uncontrolled thermoregulation What are the two division of the nervous system? A. Somatic and the autonomic B. Cerebellum and the brainstem C. Medulla oblongata and the diencephalon D. Central and the peripheral 1/21/2018 Chapter 52: Care of the Patient with a Sensory Disorder | Nursing Test Banks a. https://boostgrade.info/chapter -52-care-of-the-patient -with-a-sensory -disorder/ 10/160 Which foods should the person who suffers from migraine headaches avoid? (SATA) A. Yogurt B. Caffeine C. Beef D. Pears E. Marinated foods F. Milk The newly admitted patient to the emergency room after a motorcycle accident has serosanguineous drainage coming for the nose. What is the most appropriate nursing response to this assessment? A. Cleanse nose with a soft cotton -tipped swab B. Gently suction the nasal cavity C. Gently wipe nose with absorbent gauze D. Ask the patient to blow his nose How would the nurse instruct a patient with Parkinson disease to improve activity level? A. To use a soft mattress to relax the spine B. To walk with a shuffling gait to avoid tripping C. To walk with hands clasped behind back to help balance D. To sit in hard chair with arms for posture control How would a nurse record the behavior when a patient with Alzheimer disease attempts to eat using a napkin rather than a fork? A. Apraxia B. Agnosia C. Aphasia D. Dysphagia Four hours after a stapedectomy the patient complains that hearing has not improved at all what knowledge would the nurse use to shape a response? A. Transport to a physician immediately B. It will take at least 10 days for the graft to heal C. Hearing will not return until edema subsides D. Hearing will improve after irrigation of the ear One of the housekeepers splashes a chemical in the eyes. What should be the first priority? A. Transport to a physician immediately B. Cover the eyes with sterile gauze C. Irrigate with H2O for 5 minutes D. Irrigate with normal saline solution for 20 minutes 1/21/2018 Chapter 52: Care of the Patient with a Sensory Disorder | Nursing Test Banks a. https://boostgrade.info/chapter -52-care-of-the-patient -with-a-sensory -disorder/ 11/160 The nurse counsels the 16 year old boy that playing his music at high volume can result impairment in hearing related to: A. Damage tympanic membrane B. Protective buildup of cerumen C. Damage of the fine hair cells in the organ of corti D. Rupture of the oval window What does diabetes retinopathy result from? A. Capillaries in retina hemorrhage B. Long term overdosing of insulin C. Retinal detachment D. Aging What should the nurse include in the plan of care following a tympanoplasty? A. Enforcing bed rest for 72 hours B. Frequent turning, coughing, and deep breathing C. Elevating head of bed with operative side facing upward D. Continuous irrigation of the ear canal with antibiotic solutions Which of the following technique are necessary for safely feeding a hemiplegic patient? (SATA) A. Mixing liquids and solid food together B. Taking the patient’s dentures out to prevent chocking C. Checking the affected side of mouth for food accumulation D. Offering small bites of food E. Elevating the patient to no more than 30 degrees F. Adding a thickening agent to liquids What is the nurse aware of when assessing a person with a craniocerebral injury? A. Most injuries of this type are irreversible B. Open injuries are always more serious than closed injuries C. Signs and symptoms may not occur until several days after the trauma D. Trauma to the frontal lobe is more significant than to any other area Following a myelogram, the nurse should include in the post procedure care assessment for: A. Elevation of blood pressure B. Urine retention C. Sensation in lower extremities D. Slurred speech What is the common mistake that hinders communication when communicating with the bearing impaired ? 1/21/2018 Chapter 52: Care of the Patient with a Sensory Disorder | Nursing Test Banks a. https://boostgrade.info/chapter -52-care-of-the-patient -with-a-sensory -disorder/ 12/160 A. Overaccentuating words B. Facing the patient with speaking C. Speaking in conversational tones D. Speaking into the ear with the hearing aid What does a tympanoplasty correct? A. Conductive hearing loss B. Sensorineural hearing loss C. Congenital hearing loss D. Functional hearing loss How should the nurse advise a patient who has severe vertigo from labyrinthitis? A. Lean against a wall and not head forward until vertigo lessens B. Bend at the waist and take several deep breaths C. Drink an iced drink slowly D. Lie immobile and hold the head in one position until the vertigo lessens The nurse is caring for a home health patient who had a spinal cord injury at C5 three years ago. The nurse bases the plan of care on the knowledge that the patient will be able to: A. Feed self with setup and adaptive equipment B. Transfer self to wheelchair C. Stand erect with full leg braces D. Sit with good balance What should the nurse do when the child arrives on the floor with the diagnosis of bacterial meningitis? A. Arrange for humidified oxygen per mask B. Place the child in respiratory isolation C. Inquires about drug allergy D. Hold NPO until orders arrive Quiz #4 Immune System A type of immune -incompetence on which the body lasks the ability to respond efficiently and/or effectively to the foreign stimulus is called: A. Immunocompetence B. Immunodeficiency C. Autoimmune D. Cellular immunity A type of immune incompetence that is characterized by a response of the immune cells against the body’s own cells A. Immunocompetence B. Immunodeficiency C. Auto immune D. Cellular immunity 1/21/2018 Chapter 52: Care of the Patient with a Sensory Disorder | Nursing Test Banks a. https://boostgrade.info/chapter -52-care-of-the-patient -with-a-sensory -disorder/ 13/160 When the immune system responds appropriately to a foreign stimulus A. Immunocompetence B. Immunodeficiency C. Auto immune D. Cellular immunity Provides physical, mechanical, and chemical barriers to invade pathogens and protects against the external environment A. Nature immunity B. Acquired immunity C. Humoral immunity D. Cell mediated immunity Provides a specific reaction to each invading antigen and has the unique ability to remember the antigen that caused the attack A. Natural immunity B. Acquired immunity C. Humoral immunity D. Cell mediated immunity The patient receives dose of the offending allergens over a period of time to gradually develop immunity : A. Immunotherapy B. Vaccination C. Humoral immunity D. Natural immunity Natural immunity includes: (SATA) A. Macrophages B. Cilia C. Lymphocytes D. Stomach acid E. Tears F. Saliva Humoral immunity involves: (SATA) A. T cells B. B cells C. Neutrophils D. CD4 E. Plasma cells F. Monocytes Cell mediated immunity involves: (SATA) A. T cells B. B cells C. Neutrophils 1/21/2018 Chapter 52: Care of the Patient with a Sensory Disorder | Nursing Test Banks a. https://boostgrade.info/chapter -52-care-of-the-patient -with-a-sensory -disorder/ 14/160 D. DC4 E. Plasma cells F. Monocytes Controlled exposure to a disease producing pathogen develops antibodies while preventing disease is, (SATA) A. Immunotherapy B. Vaccination C. Humoral immunity D. Natural immunity E. Immunization Exam # 3 Which of the following is an example of immunocompetence ? A. A child that is immune to measle because of an inoculation B. A person who has seasonal allergies every fall C. When the symptoms of a common cold disappear in 1 day D. A neonate having a natural immunity from maternal antibodies An anxious patient enters the emergency room with angioedema of the lips and tongue, dyspnea, urticaria, and wheezing after having eaten a peanut butter sandwich. What should the nurse’s first intervention ? A. Apply cool compresses to urticaria B. Provide oxygen per nonbreathing mask C. Cover patient with a warm blanket D. Prepare for venipuncture for the delivery of IV medication What is the etiology of the autoimmune disease based on? A. Reaction to a “superantigen” B. Immune system producing no antibodies at all C. T cells destroying B cells D. B and T cells producing autoantibodies A patient is admitted with a secondary immunodeficiency from chemotherapy. The nursing plan of care should include provisions for: A. Infection control B. Supporting self-care C. Nutritional education D. Maintaining high fluid intake The nurse takes into consideration that when the antigen and antibody react, the complement system is activated which: 1/21/2018 Chapter 52: Care of the Patient with a Sensory Disorder | Nursing Test Banks a. https://boostgrade.info/chapter -52-care-of-the-patient -with-a-sensory -disorder/ 15/160 A. Toughens the cell wall B. Generates more t cells C. Attracts phagocytes D. Makes the antigen resistant A patient who works in a plant nursery and has suffered an allergic reaction to a bee sting is stabilized and prepared for discharge from the clinic. During discussion of prevention and manageme nt of further allergic reaction, the nurse identifies a need for additional teaching based on which comment? A. “I need to think about a change in my occupation.” B. “I will learn to administer epinephrine so that I will be prepared if I am stung again.” C. “I should wear a medic - alert bracelet indicating my allergy if I am stung again.” D. “I will need to take maintenance does of corticosteroids to prevent reactions to further stings.” What is the substance released by the T cells that stimulates the lymphocyte to attack an inflammation? A. Lymphokine B. Epinephrine C. B cells D. Histamine Immediately after the nurse administers an intradermal injection of a suspected antigen during allergy testing, the patient complains of itching at the site, weakness, and dizziness. W hich action by the nurse is most appropriate initially ? A. Elevate the arm above the shoulder B. Administer subcutaneous epinephrine C. Apply a warm compress to area D. Apply a local anti-inflammatory cream to the site The patient who had an asthma like reaction to a desensitization shot was medicated with a subcutaneous injection of epinephrine . What effect should the nurse assure the anxious patient that will have? A. Cause vasodilation B. Produce bronchodilation C. Cause productive coughing D. Reduction of pulse rate Health care facilities have reduced the incidence of serious latex reactions by: A. Having local and injectable corticosteroids on hand for employees B. Desensitizing staff who are allergic C. Supply extra hand washing stations in the halls D. Using only power -free gloves What should the nurse include to assess for in the plan of care for a patient undergoing plasmapheresis? 1/21/2018 Chapter 52: Care of the Patient with a Sensory Disorder | Nursing Test Banks a. https://boostgrade.info/chapter -52-care-of-the-patient -with-a-sensory -disorder/ 16/160 A. Hypotension B. Hypersensitivity C. Urticaria D. Flank pain A patient is undergoing immunotherapy on a perennial basis . With this form of treatment, what should the patient receive? A. Larger doses each week B. Higher concentrations each week C. Increased amounts and concentrations in 6-week cycles D. The same amount and concentration each visit In which patient should the nurse be most concerned about immunodeficiency disorder ? A. The patient taking desensitization injections (immunotherapy) B. The patient on long -term radiation therapy for cancer C. The overweight patient D. The patient recently diagnosed with lupus erythematous What is the purpose of plasmapheresis in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis? A. To add corticosteroids to relieve pain B. To remove pathologic substance present in the plasma C. To remove waste products such urea and albumin D. To add antinuclear antibodies Because the older adult has decreased production of saliva and gastric secretions , they are at risk for: A. Mouth ulcers B. Fissures in corners of the mouth C. Gastrointestinal infections D. Bloating The LPN/LVN has arrived at the patient’s bedside with a unit of packed cells to be connected to an IV that infusing. When the RN arrives, what is the first thing the nurses must do ? A. Check to ensure that the donor and recipient numbers match according to policy B. Request the patient to sign the card on the packed cells C. Immediately administer the packed cells D. Check the patient’s ID bracelet and then administer the packed cells. 1/21/2018 Chapter 52: Care of the Patient with a Sensory Disorder | Nursing Test Banks a. https://boostgrade.info/chapter -52-care-of-the-patient -with-a-sensory -disorder/ 17/160 A. Lupus erythematosus The nurse arrives at the bedside of a patient who has had a unit of packed cells infusing in huis right arm for 35 minutes. He is complaining of chills, itching, and shortness of breath . What should be the nurse’s initial action ? A. Cover with a warm blanket B. Take the patient’s temperature C. Elevate the head of the bed D. Stop the transfusion and continue with saline What should the nurse do because of the increase strength of the dose in the injections for immunotherapy ? A. Observe the patient for at least 20 minutes after administration B. Take the vital signs every 10 minutes for an hour C. Have the patient lie down quietly for an hour D. Place a warm compress on the area to speed its absorption. Which of the following are diseases which results from one’s own immune system attacking the body? (SATA) B. Glomerulonephritis C. Polio D. Rheumatoid arthritis E. Thrombocytopenic purpura F. Osteoarthritis Which of the following provide the body with innate immunity ? (SATA) A. Skin and mucous membranes B. Lungs C. Hearts D. Tears and saliva E. Natural intestinal and vaginal flora F. Stomach acid Quiz # 5 HIV/AIDS Which of the following is a CDC criterion for the progression of HIV infection to AIDS ? A. Increase in viral load B. Decreased ratio of CD8 to CD4 C. Increase in white blood cells D. Increased reactivity of skin test What should the nurse look for when reviewing a patient’s chart to determine whether she has progressed from HIV disease to AIDS ? A. CD4+ count below 500, chronic fatigue, night sweats 1/21/2018 Chapter 52: Care of the Patient with a Sensory Disorder | Nursing Test Banks a. https://boostgrade.info/chapter -52-care-of-the-patient -with-a-sensory -disorder/ 18/160 B. HIV-positive test results, CD4+ count below 200, history opportunistic disease C. Weight loss, persistent generalized lymphadenopathy, chronic diarrhea D. Fever, chills, CD4+ count below 200 A patient has just been diagnosed as HIV-positive. He asks the nurse, “Does this mean I have AIDS ?” Which response would be most informative? A. “It varies, but the average time is 8 to 10 years from the time a person is infected.” B. “Most people get AIDS within 3 to 12 weeks after they are infected with HIV.” C. “Don’t worry. You may never get AIDs with if you eat properly, exercise, and get plenty of rest.” D. “You can expect to develop signs and symptoms of AIDS within 6 months.” The nurse should instruct the patient who is diagnosed with AIDs to report signs of Kaposi’s sarcoma , which include: A. Open, bleeding skin lesions B. Blood0 tinged sputum. C. Watery diarrhea D. Reddish -purple skin lesions A patient state that he feels terrific, but a blood test shows that he is HIV-positive . It is important for the nurse to discuss with him that HIV may remain dormant for several years . What is true of the patient during this time? A. He is contagious B. He is not dangerous to anyone C. He experiences minor symptoms only D. He experiences decrease immunity A male patient is concerned about telling others he has HIV infection. What should the nurse stress when discussing his concerns? A. There is no reason to hide his disease. B. Secrecy is a poor idea because it will lower his self-esteem. C. His diagnosis will be obvious to most people with whom he will come into contact. D. Care providers and sexual partners should be told about his diagnosis. The HIV patient asks the nurse about what to expect in terms of disease progression. The nurse tells this patient that although the disease can vary greatly among individuals , the usual patterns of progression includes: A. Viremia, clinical latency, opportunistic diseases, and death. B. Asymptomatic phase, clinical latency, ARC, and AIDS. C. Acute retroviral syndrome, early infection, early symptomatic disease, and AIDs D. Transitional viral syndrome, inactive disease, early symptomatic infection, and opportunistic diseases. While teaching community groups about AIDs, what should the nurse indicate as the most common method of transmission of the HIV? A. Perinatal transmission B. Sexual contact with an HIV- infected partner C. Exposure to contaminated blood D. Nonsexual exposure to saliva and tears How does the HIV-2 virus compare to the HIV-1 virus? (SATA) A. It has lower mortality risks in the older adults. 1/21/2018 Chapter 52: Care of the Patient with a Sensory Disorder | Nursing Test Banks a. https://boostgrade.info/chapter -52-care-of-the-patient -with-a-sensory -disorder/ 19/160 B. It is less virulent C. It results in the HIV-infected person to suffer from immunodeficiency issues more slowly. D. It predisposes the HIV-infected person to be long -term non-progressor. E. It develops high viral loads A 28-year -old married attorney with one child is in the first trimester of her second pregnancy . The patient states that’s she is at not risk for HIV, so she would not need to be counseled about testing for HIV. Which is the most appropriate response? A. “She’s a professional woman in a monogamous relationship. She obviously is not at risk.” B. “Women are not at great risk. The greatest risk is with gay men.” C. “The fastest growing segment of the population with AIDs is women and children. We need to assess her risks.” D. “We need to review her chart to determine if her first child was infected.” Exam # 4 The nurse should instruct the patient who is diagnosed with AIDS to report signs of Kaposi’s sarcoma, which include: A. Open, bleeding skin lesions. B. Blood -tinged sputum C. Watery diarrhea. D. Reddish -purple skin lesions. A patient has just been diagnosed as HIV-positive . He asks the nurse, “Does this mean I have AIDS ?” Which response would be most informative? A. “It varies with every individual, but the average time is 8 to 10 years from the time a person is infected.” B. “Most people get AIDS within 3 to 12 weeks after they are infected with HIV.” C. “Don’t worry. You may never get AIDS if eat properly, exercise, and get plenty of rest.” D. “You can expect to develop signs and symptoms of AIDS with 6 months.” What should the nurse emphasize when counseling an anxious HIV-positive mother about the care of her HIV- positive infant? A. The baby will develop AIDS and refer her to a local AIDS support group. The baby will remain HIV-positive for the rest of its life. B. Although infants of HIV-infected mother many test positive for HIV antibodies, not all infants are infected with the virus. C. She has not yet developed AIDS, and that it is possible the baby will not develop AIDS for many years. D. If the infant is started on zidovudine (AZT) within the first month after delivery. AIDS can be prevented. How does the HIV-2 virus compare to the HIV-1 virus? (SATA) A. It has lower mortality risks in the older adult. 1/21/2018 Chapter 52: Care of the Patient with a Sensory Disorder | Nursing Test Banks a. https://boostgrade.info/chapter -52-care-of-the-patient -with-a-sensory -disorder/ 20/160 B. It is less virulent. C. It results in the HIV- infected person to suffer from immunodeficiency issues more slowly. D. It predisposes the HIV-infected person to be a long -term non-progressor E. It develops high viral loads. The anxious male patient is fearful that he has been exposed to a person with an HIV infection. He states he does not want to go to a laboratory for the ELISA tests because he does not want to be identified . What would the nurse’s most helpful response? A. “There really is not an option, you will need to get the western blot test first.” B. “There is an FDA-approved home test called OraQuick.” C. “The rapid test Reveal can identify all the HIV strains.” D. “You can be tested anonymously for ELISA. If you are seronegative, your concerns ae over.” The depressed patient with AIDS says, “I don’t understand why I am going to be getting to be getting doses of testosterone . What good will that do me now?” What should the nurse keep in mind about testosterone when responding? A. It can lower the viral load B. It can lighten depression C. It can increase lean body mass D. It can increase appetite. Why are snacks high in potassium, such as bananas and apricot nectar, recommended? A. Electrolytes are lost through diaphoresis B. Sodium in lost through frequent diarrhea C. Potassium will support weight gain D. Potassium helps fight infection The HIV-infected patient who has just seroconverted says he just cannot take all those confusing, expensive, antiretroviral (ART) medications . He says he feels fine, anyway. What should the nurse keep in mind when counseling the is patient? A. Resumption of the ART later in the disease is just as effective B. Adherence to the ART protocol is essential to the success of the treatment C. Cessation of the ART may prevent the emergence of a resistant strain of HIV D. Once ART is initiated, it cannot be restarted in the same patient For the most people who are HIV-positive, marker antibodies are usually present 10 to 12 weeks after exposure. What is the development of these antibodies called? A. Immunocompetence B. Seroconversion C. Opportunistic infection 1/21/2018 Chapter 52: Care of the Patient with a Sensory Disorder | Nursing Test Banks a. https://boostgrade.info/chapter -52-care-of-the-patient -with-a-sensory -disorder/ 21/160 D. Immunodeficiency The patient, age 21, has been treated for chlamydia and has a history of recurrent herpes . What should the nurse coun sel this patient about? A. Getting an appointment at a family planning clinic B. Testing for HIV and what the test results mean C. Abstinence and a monogamous relationship D. Sexual history, risk reduction measures, and testing for HIV Which if the following are nursing interventions for the patient problem of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements? (SATA) A. Provide adequate, easily digestible, soft, bland foods. B. Give small, frequent, highly nutritional meals C. Allow extra time to eat D. Offer three regular meals of highly nutrition foods A patient, age 56, has been advised that his prostate -specific antigen (PSA) level is elevated. The health care provider then performed a digital rectal examination (DRE). What should the next definitive diagnostic test be? A. CA-125 test B. Transrectal ultrasound C. Needle biopsy of the prostate D. MRI A patient, age 39, receiving chemotherapy for treatment of her cancer has a white blood cell count of 1600/mm3. This finding requires nursing interventions to provide which of the following? A. Adequate fluid intake B. Protection from falls C. Protections against infection D. Frequent small nutritious snacks Which statement is most appropriate for a nurse to tell a patient before insertion of the radioactive implant? A. “Nurses will always be available, but they will spend only short periods of time at your bedside.” B. “Personal cleanliness is essential, so you will be given a complete bed bath each day.” C. “Your diet will be changed to a high -fiber diet to encourage daily bowel movements.” D. “Your bed linens will be completely changed each day to minimize radioactive contamination.” The difference between an excisional biopsy and an incisional biopsy is that an excisional biopsy involves the: A. Use of a needle to obtain fluid samples B. Removal of the entire lesion 1/21/2018 Chapter 52: Care of the Patient with a Sensory Disorder | Nursing Test Banks a. https://boostgrade.info/chapter -52-care-of-the-patient -with-a-sensory -disorder/ 22/160 C. Taking a “bite” from the lesion for study D. Shaving of the superficial layers of the lesion The patient receiving radiation therapy complains of the conspicuous markings on the skin. What can the nurse explain about these markings? A. They are residues of the treatment and can be washed off B. They are caused by radiation and will fade in time C. They are indicators of the amount of radiation the patient is receiving D. They should be lef t in the skin, do not erase the markings. The nurse instructs a patient who has been smoking for years about the warning signs of cancer. The nurse tells him that one of cancer’s seven warning signals include: A. Nagging cough or hoarseness B. A sore that does not heal rapidly C. Gallbladder disease D. Hematopoietic changes What measures would the home health nurse, designing nursing interventions for a patient receiving external radiation treatments for a malignancy, recommend to protect the patient’s skin? A. Applying warm compresses to damages skin B. Encouraging patient to apply fragrant lotion to skin C. Patting the skin dry after the bath D. Exposing skin to sun for 10 minutes a day Which of the following are thrombocytopenic precautions? A. Requesting an order for aspirin for discomfort B. Trimming toenails close C. Using an electric razor D. Vigorous tooth cleaning A patient who has malignant cancer secondary to a high -grade lymphoma has been admitted with muscle weakness, tetany, paresthesia, and convulsion. The nurse should notices the patient is being treated for tumor lysis syndrome (TLS) and initial treatment has not been successful. What should the nurse tell family in the next step in treatment? A. Whole blood transfusion B. A bone biopsy C. Immediate radiation treatment D. Dialy sis 1/21/2018 Chapter 52: Care of the Patient with a Sensory Disorder | Nursing Test Banks a. https://boostgrade.info/chapter -52-care-of-the-patient -with-a-sensory -disorder/ 23/160 Kahoot The innermost layer od the eye is *Retina Photosensitive receptor cells of retina that we use to see in dim lights are: *Rods The area that has the highest concentration of cones is: *Fovea Centralis To adjust eye to see objects at various distance is: *Accommodation Separates middle ear from inner ear is: *Oval Window Snail shaped, spirally tube inner ear is: *Cochlea Specific organ of hearing is: *Organ of Corti When the patient stares at the black dot on an amster grid, what should the nurse ask him to report? *Any distortion of the grid A patient is in which stage of Alzheimer disease when she demonstrates “Sundowning”? *Second stage A patient with Alzheimer disease attempts to eat using a napkin rather than a fork *Agnosia How would the nurse instruct a patient with Parkinson disease to improve activity level? *Walk with hands clasped behind back to help What is the early sign of increase intracranial pressure in the brain injured patient? *Decrease in the level of consciousness What does the nurse know about the stroke patient who has expensive aphasia? *Can understand the spoken word, but cannot speak What should the nurse do when the child arrives on the floor with the diagnosis of bacterial meningitis? *Place the child in respiratory isolation What is the first sign of Bell’s palsy? 1/21/2018 Chapter 52: Care of the Patient with a Sensory Disorder | Nursing Test Banks a. https://boostgrade.info/chapter -52-care-of-the-patient -with-a-sensory -disorder/ 24/160 *Inability to wrinkle forehead and pucker lips on affected side Which symptom is specific to migraine headaches? *They are preceded by an aura What is the purpose of a “drug holiday” in the treatment of Parkinson Disease? *Restart drugs at a lower dosage with favorable results What is then etiology of autoimmune disease based on? *B and T cells producing autoantibodies What would the nurse recommend for a 94-year -old home health patient deteriorated cell mediated immunity? *Getting pneumonia vaccine What is the substance released by the T cell that stimulates the lymphocytes to attack an inflammation? *Lymphokine What should the nurse do because of the increase strength of the dose in the injections for immunotherapy? *Observe the patient for at least 20 minutes after administration. What time frame must blood be transfused within once it has been removed from refrigerator? *4 hours Because the older adult has decreased production of the salvia and gastric secretions, they are at risk for: *Gastrointestinal infections The historical progress of the HIV began in 1979. Which is the first historical event in sequence of its discovery? *Increased incidence of pneumonia jiroveci (previously PCP) Most people who are HIV-positive, marker antibodies are present 10-12 weeks after exposure. What is this called? *Seroconversion The most common method of transmission of the HIV? *sexual contact with an HIV infected partner The usual pattern of progression includes: *Acute retroviral syndrome, early infection, early symptomatic disease, and The nurse should instruct the patient who is diagnosed with AIDs to report signs of Kaposi’s sarcoma, which include: *Reddish -purple skin lesions Test Bank Nursing Management: Stroke 1/21/2018 Chapter 52: Care of the Patient with a Sensory Disorder | Nursing Test Banks a. https://boostgrade.info/chapter -52-care-of-the-patient -with-a-sensory -disorder/ 25/160 MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The nurse obtains all of the following information about a 65-year -old patient in the clinic. When developing a plan to decrease stroke risk, which risk factor is most important for the nurse to address? a. The patient smokes a pack of cigarettes daily. b. The patient’s blood pressure (BP) is chronically between 150/80 to 170/90 mm Hg. c. The patient works at a desk and relaxes by watching television. d. The patient is 25 pounds above the ideal weight. 2. A patient with right -sided weakness that started 1 hour ago is admitted to the emergency department and all these diagnostic tests are ordered. Which order should the nurse act on first? a. Noncontrast computed tomography (CT) scan b. Chest radiograph c. Complete blood count (CBC) d. Electrocardiogram (ECG) 3. The nurse expects that management of the patient who experiences a brief episode of tinnitus, diplopia, and dysarthria with no residual effects will include a. heparin via continuous intravenous infusion. b. prophylactic clipping of cerebral aneurysms. c. therapy with tissue plasminogen activator (tPA). d. oral administration of ticlopidine (Ticlid). 4. Aspirin is ordered for a patient who is admitted with a possible stroke. Which information obtained during the admission assessment indicates that the nurse should consult with the health care provider before giving the aspirin? a. The patient has atrial fibrillation. b. The patient has dysphasia. c. The patient states, “I suddenly developed a terrible headache.” d. The patient has a history of brief episodes of right hemiplegia.