(Test Bank) Gynecologic Health Care

Schuiling, 4

Medicine

Test Bank

4th Edition

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Test Bank for Gynecologic Health Care, The downloadable file consists of 153 pages, and the total size of the file is 1.85 MB. Purchase now only for highly discounted price.

Author(s): Schuiling

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Study Note Preview

Multiple Choice 1. Which of the following best defines the term “gender” as used in this text? A. A person’s sex B. A person’s sex as defined by society C. A societal response to a person’s self-representation as a man or woman D. A person’s biological presentation as defined by himself or herself Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Gender Subject: Chapter 1 2. Which factor bears most on women’s health care today? A. The complexity of women’s health B. Women’s status and position in society C. Population growth D. The economy Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Women’s Health Care and Gynecologic Health Subject: Chapter 1 3. Why is acknowledging the oppression of women more difficult within Western societies? A. The multiplicity of minority groups complicates the issue. B. The availability of health care makes acknowledgment more difficult. C. The diversity of the news media clouds the issue. D. Affluence and increased opportunities mask oppression. Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: What is Feminism? Subject: Chapter 1 4. Which of the following most accurately defines “oppression” as used in the text? A. Not having a choice B. Not having a voice C. An act of tyranny D. A feeling of being burdened Answer: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: What is Feminism? Subject: Chapter 1 5. In what way does a model of care based on a feminist perspective contrast sharply with a biomedical model? A. It provides a forum for the exploration of gender issues. B. It seeks equal distribution of power within the healthcare interaction. C. It emphasizes women’s rights. D. It opens new avenues for women’s health care. Answer: B Complexity: Difficult Ahead: A Model of Care Based on a Feminist Perspective Subject: Chapter 1 6. Sex/gender is shaped by ___________and expressed through____________. A. society, biology B. self-representation, societal expectations C. biology, appearance and behavior D. biology, hormones Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Gender Subject: Chapter 1 7. Women’s health risks, treatments, and approaches are not always based in science and biology because: A. they are often based on outdated treatments and approaches. B. they are determined by social expectations and gender assumptions. C. they often rely on alternative treatments and approaches. D. scientific research often fails to take women into consideration. Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Gender Subject: Chapter 1 8. What is a chief failing of the biomedical model in regard to women’s health care? A. Its reliance on studies comprised exclusively of males B. Its consideration of women as central the model C. Its emphasis on science and medicine D. Its limited definition of “health” as “the absence of disease” Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Social Models versus Biomedical Models of Health Subject: Chapter 1 9. Which feminist strategy is used for analyzing health to expose blind spots in investigations into the scientific basis of women’s health? A. Look for what has been left out B. Consider the social construction of sex/gender C. Explore the precise ways in which sex/gender defines or affect power relationships D. Consider the risks and benefits of generalizations Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Feminist Strategies for the Analysis of Health Subject: Chapter 1 10. What term refers to the unique combination of multiple identities based on race, class, and gender as well as the compounded experience of oppression based on these identities? A. Discrimination B. Intersectionality C. Medicalization D. Feminist considerations Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Intersectionality Subject: Chapter 1 Multiple Choice 1. Which of the following best defines the term “health disparities” as used in this text? A. Differences in health experienced by people of color and immigrants to this country B. Differences in health that adversely affect communities that are socially and/or economically disadvantaged C. Differences in health that affect the deaths and morbidity of millions of people D. Differences in health experienced by a person throughout his or her lifespan Answer: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Key Concepts and Definitions Subject: Chapter 2 2. Which of the following best explains why the concept of race was first developed? A. The concept of race was used to identify specific biological and genetic markers. B. The U.S. census developed the concept of race to group people more easily into census categories. C. Slave traders developed the concept of race to justify and support the African slave trade. D. U.S. colonies and early states developed the concept of race for use in the developing legal system. Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: History Subject: Chapter 2 3. Which of the following is NOT an example of the role racism has played in the health and medical treatment of people of color in the United States? A. Laws enacted to control and abuse the reproductive rights of enslaved women B. Medical research conducted on people of color without receiving their full informed consent C. Criminalization of pregnant people who use drugs D. The need to conduct research on ethnic differences in health outcomes Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: History Subject: Chapter 2 4. Which of the following is NOT a core tenet of the Critical Race Theory? A. Race is a factor that must be considered when addressing health disparities. B. Race is a social construct. C. Racism preferentially benefits white people over people of color. D. Racism is a common and everyday experience for people of color. Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Theories and Related Concepts Subject: Chapter 2 5. Which of the following statements is most accurate about social determinants of health? A. These are the educational papers and research studies that promote evolving understanding of health. B. These are the social, political, and economic factors that are mostly responsible for health inequities. C. These are data points that can be used to guide medical responses in times of public health crises. D. These have been studied by public health administrators and sociologists to address health disparities. Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Theories and Related Concepts Subject: Chapter 2 6. Which of the following helps to explain how one’s health over their lifetime is impacted by biological and social events? A. World Health Organization B. Structural competency C. Critical race theory D. Lifecourse Health Development Model Answer: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Theories and Related Concepts Subject: Chapter 2 7. Which of the following skill sets of structural competency recognizes that one can never fully understand how economic, social, and political forces impact another’s life? A. Recognize the structures that shape clinical interactions. B. Develop structural humility. C. Imagine structural intervention. D. Rearticulate cultural presentations in structural terms. Answer: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Gender Subject: Chapter 2 8. What is suggested by the numerous studies that find an increased allostatic load in Black people as compared to white people? A. Prolonged exposure to stressors leads to greater adaptation to overall stress levels in those with an increased allostatic load. B. Black people may have lowered risk for mortality as well as decreased physical and cognitive function. C. Black people may be better able to manage their stress than white people. D. Persistent racial differences in health may be influenced by living in a race-conscious society. Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: How Racism Impacts Physiology Subject: Chapter 2 9. Which of the following is a plausible explanation for the disparity in breast cancer mortality rates for Black and white women? A. Black women were less likely to have their mammograms read by a trained specialist. B. Black women were more likely to have a digital mammogram. C. White women self-report higher screening mammogram rates than Black women. D. White women are more likely to exert social pressure on friends and family members to receive screening mammograms. Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Inequity in Gynecologic Health Subject: Chapter 2 10. Which of the following is the most important intervention to address health disparities related to race? A. Law and policy B. Community expertise C. Workplace diversification D. Reducing implicit bias Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Addressing Racism and Race-Associated Disparities Subject: Chapter 2 Multiple Choice 1. How does Erick Erikson’s grand theory of human development differ for females? A. It recognizes achieving autonomy as a primary focus. B. It assumes only men desire autonomy. C. It assumes female dependence on another in order to achieve a sense of self. D. It assumes females desire dependence on others. Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Women’s Growth and Development Across the Life Span Subject: Chapter 3 2. What is true about human development theories published before the 1970s? A. They are based on interviews conducted only with men. B. They assume androcentric models can be applied correctly to women. C. They frame women’s development as flawed in comparison to the standard. D. All of these are correct. Answer: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Women’s Growth and Development Across the Life Span Subject: Chapter 3 3. What is the intention of the newer feminist models of development? A. To offer a new model within the traditional biomedical focus B. To offer alternatives to the constrained and previously misapplied models C. To replace male generalist models with female generalist models D. To present a contrast to privileged, white male-based models Answer: B Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Women’s Growth and Development Across the Life Span Subject: Chapter 3 4. What is a key limitation of prevailing developmental models for women? A. The influence of culture, economic status, social interactions and qualitative aspects of how individuals live their lives are not considered. B. They present conflicting and misapplied models. C. Gender differences are assumed to be socially prescribed. D. The similarities between male and female. Answer: A Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Women’s Growth and Development Across the Life Span Subject: Chapter 3 5. What event in female development marks the beginning of a tension between biologic changes and the social context? A. Turning 18 years old B. The onset of menses C. Onset of puberty as related to body fat mass D. Pregnancy Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Adolescence Subject: Chapter 3 6. How many stages does the Tanner scale use to stage sexual maturity? A. 3 stages B. 5 stages C. 6 stages D. 8 stages Answer: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Adolescence Subject: Chapter 3 7. What is the median age for the onset of menstruation for adolescent girls in the United States? A. 9.8 B. 10.8 C. 12.8 D. 13.8 Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Adolescence Subject: Chapter 3 8. What factor influences a woman’s affective and behavioral experiences across the lifespan? A. Failure to take into account social and cultural norms B. The inability to move through the world with credibility and respect C. Poverty D. Difficulty in managing the developmental tasks of adolescence successfully Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Adolescence Subject: Chapter 3 9. What narrow term is often used to refer to the period of Early Adulthood? A. Productive years B. Reproductive years C. Young adulthood D. Adolescence Answer: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Early Adulthood Subject: Chapter 3 10. Erikson identified the phases of the life span that encompass the midlife years for women as: A. Intimacy versus isolation B. Integrity versus despair C. Lifestyle consolidation versus emptiness D. Generativity versus self-absorption Answer: D Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Midlife Subject: Chapter 3 Multiple Choice 1. What concern prompted the initiation of the modern EBP movement in health care? A. That clinicians often failed to evaluate the effectiveness of their own care B. That expert opinion was valued over scientific evidence C. That scientific evidence was valued over expert opinion D. That patients were demanding more evidence to support care decisions Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: The History of Evidence-Based Practice Subject: Chapter 4 2. Quine’s (1952) concept of a web of interconnecting beliefs and knowledge supports: A. the inferiority of quantitative research. B. a multiple-method approach to examining phenomena. C. the superiority of qualitative research. D. the difficulties of establishing best practices. Answer: B Complexity: Difficult Ahead: The History of Evidence-Based Practice Subject: Chapter 4 3. Why are multiple approaches needed to identify best clinical practices? A. To reflect the multiple variables within clinical settings B. To offer alternatives to poorly functioning practices C. To address the complexity of the human condition D. To ensure that no single approach dominates Answer: C Complexity: Difficult Ahead: The History of Evidence-Based Practice Subject: Chapter 4 4. What is the third part of the clinical decision-making triad that includes clinical experience and patient preference? A. An investigation of treatment pathways B. A consultation with clinical management C. An evaluation of current clinical research D. Establishing research methodology Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Types of Research Evidence Subject: Chapter 4 5. How many classifications are used by the U.S. Preventative Service Task Force to gauge the strength of recommendations for using research evidence in clinical practice? A. 3 B. 5 C. 6 D. 8 Answer: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Research Methods to Inform Clinical Practice Subject: Chapter 4 6. What are the corresponding clinical terms for Type I and Type II errors in quantitative research? A. “false positive” and “false negative” B. “negativity” and “positivity” C. “bias I” and “bias II” D. “evidence flaw” and “process flaw” Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Research Methods to Inform Clinical Practice Subject: Chapter 4 7. What key factor shapes the methodology of qualitative research? A. A person’s view of the world B. The ability to establish control over variables C. The ability to establish cause and effect D. A well-conducted meta-analysis Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Research Methods to Inform Clinical Practice Subject: Chapter 4 8. What field of study informs qualitative research? A. Anthropology B. Ecological psychology C. Sociolinguistics D. All of these are correct. Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Research Methods to Inform Clinical Practice Subject: Chapter 4 9. The Cochrane Collaboration, PubMed, and the Joanna Briggs Institute are examples of: A. Resources that set guidelines for evaluating healthcare research B. Frameworks used in Translation/Implementation Research C. Sources that provide the clinician with an ability to locate and review relevant research and best evidence efficiently D. Qualitative methods Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Barriers to Achieving Quality Evidence-Based Practice Subject: Chapter 4 10. What type of research relies on the integration of quantitative and qualitative research, patient-oriented research, quality improvement studies and population-based research to improve health outcomes? A. Interactionism B. Translational C. Naturalistic D. Grounded Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Research Methods to Inform Clinical Practice Subject: Chapter 4 Multiple Choice 1. What approach does Health People 2020 use to achieve its goals and objectives? A. Social determinants of health B. Evidence-based determinants of health C. Quality-of-life determinants of health D. Longevity promotion determinants of health Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Health Promotion: A National Initiative Subject: Chapter 5 2. What percentage of the nation’s gross domestic product was spent on health care in 2017? A. .9 percent B. 7.9 percent C. 17.9 percent D. 27.9 percent Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Health Promotion: A National Initiative Subject: Chapter 5 3. Which of the following is a new focus area added for Healthy People 2020? A. Lesbian, gay, bisexual, and transgender health B. Maternal, infant, and child health C. Nutrition and weight status D. Family planning Answer: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Health Promotion: A National Initiative Subject: Chapter 5 4. Which two risk factors resulted in annual medical expenses of more than $325 billion in the United States? A. Lack of preventive care and physical activity B. Heart disease and stroke C. Smoking and obesity D. Nutrition and weight status Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Health Promotion: A National Initiative Subject: Chapter 5 5. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), which is true about the presence of a disease state? A. It necessitates prompt medical attention. B. It excludes a person from being considered healthy. C. It does not exclude a person from being considered healthy. D. It classifies a person as in poor health. Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Defining Health Subject: Chapter 5 6. Which approach to health promotion comes closest to that advocated by the text? A. Is determined primarily by the clinician B. Pays close attention to cost effectiveness C. Focuses on the absence of disease D. Considers the patient and his or her cultural perceptions Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Defining Health Subject: Chapter 5 7. Which of the following is considered primary prevention? A. Targeted immunization B. Services that limit an existing disability C. Routine laboratory screening D. Rehabilitation Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Defining Prevention Subject: Chapter 5 8. What area of injury prevention is a focus of the USPSTF’s guidelines for counseling all healthy, asymptomatic women? A. Motor vehicle accidents B. Falls C. Domestic violence D. All of these are correct Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Effective Counseling Interventions for Healthy, Asymptomatic Women Subject: Chapter 5 9. ACA-compliant insurance policies must cover which of the following preventive service(s)? A. Well-woman physical exams B. Contraceptives C. Breastfeeding support, maternity and newborn care D. All of these Answer: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Preventive Health Service for Women Under the Affordable Care Act Subject: Chapter 5 10. In the delivery of services aimed at prevention, secondary prevention focuses on which of the following? A. Health education, counseling, and lifestyle modification B. Early detection of disease and prompt treatment C. Limiting disability and promoting recovery D. All of these Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Defining Prevention Subject: Chapter 5 Multiple Choice 1. A major contributor to pelvic stability is: A. the coccyx. B. the pubis. C. the ilium and its ligaments. D. the sacrum. Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Pelvic Anatomy Subject: Chapter 6 2. How many different fiber sections subdivide the levator ani muscular sheet? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6 Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Pelvic Anatomy Subject: Chapter 6 3. Which arteries supply blood to the clitoris? A. Arcuate arteries B. Dorsal and clitoral cavernosal arteries C. Two ovarian arteries D. Coiled arteries Answer: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Female Genitalia Subject: Chapter 6 4. What is the approximate number of ovarian follicles at the initiation of puberty? A. 100,000 B. 200,000 C. 400,000 D. 600,000 Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Female Genitalia Subject: Chapter 6 5. The four segments of a fallopian tube are the pars interstitialis, the isthus, the ampulla, and the: A. infundibulum. B. medulla. C. hilum. D. myometrium. Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Female Genitalia Subject: Chapter 6 6. About how many openings are in the nipple? A. 1 to 5 B. 5 to 10 C. 10 to 15 D. 15 to 20 Answer: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Breast Anatomy and Physiology Subject: Chapter 6 7. What is one of the most frequent reasons women visit their clinician? A. Changes in menstruation B. Family planning C. Pregnancy D. Prevention and wellness Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Menstrual Cycle Physiology Subject: Chapter 6 8. The two hormones responsible for gynecologic organ activities synthesized by the anterior pituitary are: A. Follicle-stimulating hormone and Luteinizing hormone B. Adrenocorticotropin and Follicle-stimulating hormone C. Luteinizing hormone and Melanocyte-stimulating hormone D. Adrenocorticotropin and Prolactin Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: The Hypothalamic-Pituitary-Ovarian Axis Subject: Chapter 6 9. During which phase of the ovarian cycle do the follicle’s granulosa cells that are left in the ruptured follicle become enlarged, undergo luteinization, and form the corpus luteum? A. Follicular B. Proliferative C. Luteal D. Ovulatory Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: The Ovarian Cycle Subject: Chapter 6 10. Which statement best describes the evolving care of individuals who are born intersex? A. The term “disorders of sex development” as a classification method is accepted by intersex individuals. B. There is no consensus on whether all individuals should receive a gender assignment. C. Long-term management is not necessary. D. Today birth certificates do not reflect intersex status. Answer: B Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Considerations Subject: Chapter 6 Multiple Choice 1. What is the primary purpose of taking a health history? A. To learn about a woman’s health concerns B. To establish a relationship with a woman while learning about her health C. To identify any unresolved/latent health issues D. To ensure that a woman’s healthcare records are up to date Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Health History Subject: Chapter 7 2. Which skills are valued in a clinician taking a health history? A. Respectful attention B. Empathy C. Trust-building D. All of these are correct. Answer: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Health History Subject: Chapter 7 3. Which one of the following best illustrates trauma-informed care? A. The clinician advises the patient that she can accept or decline any examination. B. The clinician knows which examinations are needed, and the patient is expected to comply. C. A basic assumption is that most patients have not experienced trauma. D. The patient is expected to respect the clinician’s superior healthcare knowledge. Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Context and Approach: Trauma-Informed Care Subject: Chapter 7 4. In the GTPAL system for recording pregnancy history, the “T” stands for: A. term births. B. terminal pregnancies. C. total number of pregnancies. D. type of birth (spontaneous, assisted, or cesarean). Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Health History Subject: Chapter 7 5. In a complete physical examination in the ambulatory gynecology setting, it is customary to: A. evaluate major organ systems briefly and carefully, but not exhaustively. B. ask the woman which physical examination maneuvers should be performed. C. evaluate major organ systems thoroughly. D. palpate the precordium. Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Physical Examination for a Gynecologic Visit Subject: Chapter 7 6. How should the order of examination proceed? A. Head to toe B. Toe to head C. By major organ system D. By concern presented Answer: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Physical Examination for a Gynecologic Visit Subject: Chapter 7 7. Where may supernumerary occur? A. Anywhere from the neck to the ankle unilaterally B. Anywhere on the torso C. Anywhere along a vertical line from the axilla to the inner thigh D. Anywhere on the breast tissue, including the tall of Spence Answer: C Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Physical Examination for a Gynecologic Visit Subject: Chapter 7 8. Where in the breast do most malignancies develop? A. Upper inner quadrant B. Upper outer quadrant C. Lower outer quadrant D. Lower inner quadrant Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Physical Examination for a Gynecologic Visit Subject: Chapter 7 9. At the completion of Sally’s examination, Dr. Smith was unsure of the degree of severity of a finding. As part of summing up the visit, how should Dr. Smith address this issue? A. Dr. Smith should not discuss any findings of which he doesn’t know the full implications. B. Dr. Smith should tell Sally he doesn’t have time to review the examination findings now but will be in touch if anything comes up. C. Dr. Smith should follow a scripted summation giving the same level of detail to all patients. D. Dr. Smith should review both normal and abnormal exam findings assuring Sally of prompt follow-up. Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Conclusion: Summing Up and Documenting Findings Subject: Chapter 7 10. Why are vaginal secretions collected during the speculum examination? A. For cytology screening B. For microscopy to aid in the diagnosis of vaginal and sexually transmitted infections C. For gonorrhea, chlamydia, and trichomoniasis testing D. Due to concern for a Bartholin cyst or a history of recurrent abscesses Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Appendix 7-C Subject: Chapter 7 Multiple Choice 1. Which of the following is part of the male internal genitalia? A. Scrotum B. Testes C. Penis D. Vas deferens Answer: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Reproductive Anatomy Subject: Chapter 8 2. Which of the following is part of the male external genitalia? A. Urethra B. Prostrate C. Epididymis D. Seminal vesicles Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Reproductive Anatomy Subject: Chapter 8 3. Which of the following refers to the formation of sperm? A. Erection B. Spermatogenesis C. Circumcision D. Reproduction Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Reproductive Physiology Subject: Chapter 8 4. What is the function of the hypothalamic–pituitary–gonadal (HPG) axis? A. Regulates reproductive development and functioning B. Formation of sperm C. Metabolization of testosterone D. Increases production of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Reproductive Physiology Subject: Chapter 8 5. Which of the following statements is NOT typically part of the physical examination during a male SRH visit? A. Oral examination B. Neurological examination C. Genital examination D. Anal and rectal examination Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Sexual and Reproductive Health Assessment Subject: Chapter 8 6. Which of the following is the preferred testing method for chlamydia? A. First-catch urine test B. Urethral specimen test C. Blood test D. Rectal testing Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Sexually Transmitted Infections Subject: Chapter 8 7. What characteristic do all sexual dysfunctions have in common? A. They are lifelong conditions. B. They do not develop until after puberty. C. They cause distress to the person experiencing them. D. They can be remedied by the HPV vaccination. Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Male Sexual Dysfunction Subject: Chapter 8 8. Which of the following form of male contraception is intended to be permanent and is more effective than female contraception? A. Abstinence B. Coitus interruptus C. Condoms D. Vasectomy Answer: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Contraception Subject: Chapter 8 9. Why do neither the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force nor the American Cancer Society recommend that all men perform regular testicular self-examinations? A. They may be performed incorrectly and lead to a missed diagnosis. B. Most men are uncomfortable performing testicular self-examinations. C. It is critical that only trained medical professionals evaluate for testicular irregularities. D. They do not lead to earlier diagnosis or improved outcomes. Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Testicular Cancer Subject: Chapter 8 10. Which of the following is a reason that data on health status and health-related behaviors for gay and bisexual men are sparse and challenging to collect, according to the text? A. Men are less likely than women to be forthcoming about their sexual preferences and encounters. B. Sexuality terminology and definitions are not universally agreed on. C. Medical examinations tend not to ask about sexual identification. D. Until recently, there has been inadequate care provided to gay and bisexual men. Answer: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Gay and Bisexual Men’s Health Subject: Chapter 8