(Test Bank) Primary Professional Military Education BLOCK 2,3,4,5 & 6

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Test Bank for Primary Professional Military Education BLOCK 2,3,4,5 & 6, The downloadable file consists of 170 pages, and the total size of the file is 2.78 MB. Purchase now only for highly discounted price.

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TEST BANK Primary Professional Military Education BLOCK 2,3,4,5 & 6 (Complete Questions and Solutions 2021)Primary Professional Military Education THE CULTURE OF THE NAVY (BLOCK 2) 5 ENLISTED PROFESSIONALISM 5 Military Formations 5 Military Uniforms, Customs, and Courtesies 6 Fleet Response Plan 7 Chief Petty Officer History, Duties, and Responsibilities 8 Overview of Manpower Management for the Senior Enlisted Leader 9 CUSTOMS, HONORS, AND TRADITIONS 10 Naval Customs 10 NAVY FLEETS 11 Second and Fourth Fleets 11 Fifth Fleet 12 Sixth Fleet 13 Pacific Fleet 14 CUSTOMS, HONORS, AND TRADITIONS 15 Customs and Traditions 15 Ships - Customs and Traditions 16 Honors and Ceremonies 17 ETHICS AND PROFESSIONALISM FOR THE WARFIGHTER 18 Military Ethics Overview 18 Ethics in the Profession of Arms 19 Ethics and the Warfighter 21 The Just War Tradition 23 Standards of Conduct and Gov. Ethics 24 Lawful and Unlawful Orders 25 GOVERNANCE OF THE NAVY (BLOCK 3) 27 ROLES, MISSIONS, AND FUNCTIONS OF THE DEPARTMENT OF THE NAVY 27 Roles and functions 27 NATIONAL MILITARY ORGANIZATION 28 NMO 28 STRATEGIC PLANNING AND GUIDANCE 29 Strategic Guidance for the Armed Forces 29 Joint Vision for Future Warfighting 30 Sea Power 21 31 Cooperative Maritime Strategy 32 HOW THE NAVY THINKS ABOUT WAR (BLOCK 4) 33 THE AMERICAN WAY OF WAR 33 The American Way of War 33Primary Professional Military Education THE NAVAL WAY OF WAR 35 The Naval Way of War 35 THE NAVAL WAY OF WAR 2 37 The Naval Way of War 2 37 DOCTRINE 39 Doctrine 39 NAVAL WARFARE 40 JFMCC-CCW 40 Command and Control (C2) 40 Joint force Maritime Component Commander (JFMCC) 41 Composite Warfare Commander Concept 42 CWC Roles and Responsibilities 43 JFMCC/CWC Challenges 44 Strike Warfare 45 Origins and Development 45 Carrier Strike Groups 47 The Aircraft Carrier 48 Carrier Air Wing 49 Tomahawk Land Attack Missile 50 Expeditionary Warfare 51 Intro to Expeditionary Warfare Operations 51 Domains of Force Employment 52 Surface Warfare (SUW) 52 Air Defense 53 Undersea Warfare 55 Naval Special Warfare 57 Naval Logistics 58 Naval Logistics 58 JOINT WARFARE 59 Fundamentals of Joint Warfare 59 Fundamentals of Information Operations 60 FORCE CAPABILITIES 61 United States Army 61 United States Air Force 63 United States Marine Corps 64 United States Coast Guard 65 Special Operation Forces 66 RANGE OF MILITARY OPERATIONS 67 Homeland Security Homeland Defense 67 Irregular Warfare 68 HOW THE NAVY PLANS ITS OPERATIONS (BLOCK 5) 69 REGIONAL AND CULTURAL AWARENESS 69 Political Stuctures 69Primary Professional Military Education GEOPOLITICAL CULTURE 71 Cultural Explanations of Political Behavior 71 Democracy and Nationalism 73 The Future of Democracy and Democratization 74 REGIONAL 75 Western Hemisphere 75 Western Hemisphere 75 Latin American Militaries 78 Eurasia 79 Eurasia 79 European Union 81 Africa 82 Africa 82 Religions of Africa 83 African Security 84 Asia Pacific 85 Asia Pacific Overview 85 Partition of the Indian Subcontinent 86 China: Alone and Joining the World 88 China Security Issues 89 China Environment and Development 90 China Ethnicity/Nationality and Development 91 The Arctic 92 The Arctic 92 INDIAN OCEAN 94 The Indian Ocean 94 Great Middle East 96 Greater Middle East Overview 96 The Arab-Israeli Conflict 97 U.S. Security, Strategy, and Policy 98 Islam in the Greater Middle East 99 OPERATIONAL PLANNING 100 Introduction to Planning 100 The Role of Intelligence 101 Navy Planning Process 103 MARITIME CYBERSPACE OPERATIONS 104 Maritime Cyberspace Operations 104 OPERATIONAL LAW 105 Law of the Sea and Airspace 105 Law of the Sea and Airspace 105 Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) 106 Law of Armed Conflict, Scope 106 Law of Armed Conflict, Principles 108 Rules of Engagement 109 Rules of Engagement, General Principles 109 Standing Rules of Engagement 110 Self-Defense 112 MISSION ACCOMPLISHMENT 113 Rules for the Use of Force 115Primary Professional Military Education TECHNOLOGY IN THE MARITIME DOMAIN (BLOCK 6) 116 SENSORS 116 Force Multiplication Sensors 116 Sensor Fundamentals 118 Understanding the Frequency Spectrum 119 Sensor Challenges for Modern Combat Systems 120 Maintaining Technical Superiority 121 Magnetic Sensors 122 Sonar 123 Radar 124 Electro-optic Technology 125 SPACE FORCE ENHANCEMENT 126 Military Space Mission Areas 126 Intelligence Surveillance Reconnaissance 127 Integrated Tactical Warning and Attack Assessment 128 Environmental Monitoring 129 Satellite Communications 130 Position, Time, Velocity, and Navigation 132 INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY AND FORCENET 133 Data and Information 133 Command and Control (C2) 134 Decision Making 135 FORCEnet 136 COMMUNICATIONS FOR THE WARFIGHTER 138 Communications for the warfighter 138 STEALTH TECHNOLOGY 139 Stealth Technology 139 EVALUATION OF NAVAL PLATFORMS 140 Evolution of the US Submarine 140 Evolution of the US Navy Surface Combatants 141 Evolution of Carrier Aviation 142Primary Professional Military Education 2The Culture of the Navy (Block 2) Enlisted Professionalism 2.1.1Military Formations Q1:Drill instills discipline and fosters what kind of habits? A:Precision and automatic response Q2:Traditionally, awards are handed out in what manner? A:From most junior to senior Q3: Which of the following is NOT a reason to conduct a personnel inspection? A:To use as a tool to punish your Sailors Q4: As a leader, you will organize your Sailors into formation for which one of the following occasions? A:Awards ceremony Q5:During the Revolutionary War, ______________ developed a set of standardized drills for General George Washington and the Continental Army. A:Baron von Steuben Q6:Which event would NOT require the Commanding Officer to order the ship to man the rails? A:Leaving the shipyards after 120 days Q7:Who is known as the “Drillmaster of the American Revolution”? A:Baron von Steuben Q8:What type of command is the first word in “Parade Rest”? A:Preparatory Q9:At the beginning of the Revolutionary War, ______________ was the leaders' primary tool to achieve discipline in ranks. A:fear Q10:What do you call the extreme right or left of an element? A:Flank Q11:As a leader, you can only command Sailors to the position of parade rest, from what position? A:Attention Q12:Sailors are in a _____________, when placed in formation one behind the other? A:File Q13:Which of the following events would not require you, as a leader, to hold military quarters? A:Refueling evolution Q14:What is the distance between ranks? A:40 Q15:A/an__________ can be a single person or a section of a larger formation. A:Element Q16:When giving a command, what do you call the rise and fall of the pitch in your voice? A:Inflection Q17:What order allows room for the inspecting party to step between ranks to conduct an inspection of the sailors? A:OPEN RANKS Q18:As a leader, which situation would cause you to expect a personnel inspection of your Sailors? A:Prior to the seasonal uniform change Q19:Which of the following is NOT one of the principles behind an awards system? A:Every Sailor should get an award after a command evolution for the sake of equity and good moralePrimary Professional Military Education 2.1.2Military Uniforms, Customs, and Courtesies 1When in a military vehicle and an officer is seen, who renders the hand salute? A:The right front passenger seat salutes Q20:What does Title 10, U.S. Code mandate with respect to uniforms? A:The requirement to generate, maintain, and update the uniform regulations Q21:When walking with a senior, what side do you walk on? A:Left Q22:Who exits a military vehicle first? A:The senior leaves first Q23:How do you recognize the Sergeant Major of the U.S. Army? A:The hat insignia and rank insignia contain the eagle from the great seal Q24:What is the U.S. Army’s highest enlisted pay grade? A:Sergeant Major Q25:What is meant by “under arms”? A:When wearing a side arm or carrying a weapon Q26:At what distance do you begin your salute when approaching an officer? A:At six paces or closest point of approach Q27:The Air Force rank associated with its highest enlisted pay grade is that of? A:Chief Master Sergeant Q28: What is the definition of “prescribable” items? A:Uniform items which may be directed or authorized for wear with the basic uniform. Items may be worn with basic uniforms at the individual’s discretion unless otherwise directed. Q29: What Army rank is associated with the E-6 pay grade? A:Staff Sergeant Q30: What should you do when the national anthem of a friendly foreign? A:Salute Q31: During the navy’s early years, enlisted uniforms were prescribed by ______” A:Individual ship captains Q32: Which of the following is not a responsibility of senior Non-commissioned officers? A:Make difficult decisions for junior officersPrimary Professional Military Education 2.1.3Fleet Response Plan 1Presence with a purpose” provides what? A:routine, pulse Q33:Which report issued a mandate for the U.S. military to transform leading to adoption of FRP? A:2001 Quadrennial Defense Review Q34:Who did Admiral Vern Clark task with developing a plan to replace the 18-month inter-deployment training cycle (IDTC)? A:Commander, Fleet Forces Command Q35:When is a CSG considered surge ready? A:When they have completed integrated phase training Q36:The Fleet Response Plan places a carrier strike group in these four categories? A:Maintenance A:Emergency surge, surge ready surge deploy A:Emergency surge, surge ready, routine Q37:The Fleet Response Plan is often referred to as what? A:Fleet Readiness Plan Q38:What time frame does the Fleet Response Plan use as its cycle? A:A 27-month cycle Q39:At its core, the Fleet Response Plan is? A:a mission driven, capabilities-based response plan Q40:The Fleet Response Plan calls for how many carrier strike groups to be deployable within 30 days? A:6 Q41: When a ship, sub, or squadron is considered routine deployable? A:After successfully completing all necessary capabilities training including completion of underway … Q42:Which Sea Power 21 initiative changed the way the U.S. Navy deploys and trains the Fleet? A:Sea Basing Q43:What does the 6 + 2 plan provide? A:6 CSG available to deploy within 30 days Q44:Due to the war on terror, Secretary of the Navy England challenged the U.S. Navy to do what? A:Maintain its relevance Q45:Under the 27-month Fleet Response Plan, a carrier strike group is surge ready for how many months? A:16 Months Q46:The flexible deployment concept allows units that have attained high readiness to embark on deployments in support of specific national priorities such as? A:homeland defense Q47:When is a CSG considered in emergency surge status? A:When they have successfully completed their unit level phase training phasePrimary Professional Military Education 2.1.4Chief Petty Officer History, Duties, and Responsibilities Q48:The only article of the CPO uniform described in the 1897 Uniform Regulations was the? A:hat device Q49:Which regulation established the grade of chief petty officer on 1 April 1893? A:U.S. Navy Regulation Circular Number 1 General Order Number 409 Q50:On 23 May, 1978, the CNO approved new roles and responsibilities for a chief petty officer. Which of the following was a defined role? A:The top technical authority and expert within a rating Q51:The CNO/MCPON Advisory Panel was established in 1971 to? A:Represent the enlisted force to Navy leadership on professional and personnel issues Q52:The Career Compensation Act of 1949 established what significant change? A:It designated chief petty officers as paygrade E-7 instead of paygrade 1 Q53:What initiative led directly to the recommendation for establishing the billet of Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy? A:The Retention Task Force of 1964 Q54:In the early 1900’s Sailors of all rates were promoted to fill what first? A:Voids in critical Navy billets, normally in their own command Q55:During the early 1900’s, chief petty officers could receive a permanent appointment based on? A:Satisfactory performance, as evaluated by the commanding officer Q56:On 28 April 1967, ____________ became the first Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy. A:GMCM Delbert Black Q57:What is not a responsibility of the Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy? A:Report to CNP A:Travel extensively Q58:On 13 January 1967, GMCM Delbert Black was officially appointed as the first? A:Senior Enlisted Advisor of the Navy Q59:The duties and responsibilities of a Master Chief Petty Officer in 1978 were? A:broadened to include contributing to command-level policy formulation Q60:The paygrades of Senior Chief and Master Chief Petty Officer were established in what year? A:1958 Q61:The Chief Petty Officer Core Competencies were developed to? A:Strengthen chief petty officer standards Q62:According to the 1918 Bluejacket’s Manual, two roles of a chief petty officer were ______ A:Technical expert and example setterPrimary Professional Military Education 2.1.5Overview of Manpower Management for the Senior Enlisted Leader 1TFFMS provide access to current manpower data for? A:resource sponsors Q63:Which statement defines Projected Operational Environment (POE)? A:Environment in which a command is expected to operate Q64:Changes to the AMD can come from what factors? A:Changes in mission or equipment/systems added or deleted from the platform Q65:OPNAVINST 1300.15, Navy Military Personnel Assignment Policy, states Navy policy is to make only permanent change of station (PCS) moves necessary for ______________. A:national security and/or to ensure equitable treatment of Sailors Q66:Which statement defines Projected Operational Environment (POE)? A:Environment in which a command is expected to operate Q67:Manpower management determines manpower authorization priorities based on available funding and ____: A:warfare sponsor requirements Q68:Where do you find current and future peacetime and mobilization manpower requirements and authorizations? A:Activity Manning Document (AMD) Q69:Who prepares the statements detailing Required Operational Capability (ROC)? A:Mission and warfare sponsors Q70:OPNAV Instruction 1000.16, Manual of Navy T otal Force Manpower Policies and Procedures, defines manpower management as a? A:methodical process Q71:In manpower management, commands are responsible for what? A:Submitting requests to revise, add, or delete requirements Q72:For whom does the Personnel Readiness and Support branch (PERS 4013) perform placement functions? A:Enlisted Q73:The methodical process of determining, validating, and using manpower requirements as a basis for budget decisions defines ______________. A:manpower management Q74:The AMD is a single source document that provides? A:Quantitative and qualitative manpower requirements Q75:How often is the EDVR published? A:Monthly Q76:What is the single authoritative database for MPN manpower authorizations and end strength? A:Total Force Manpower Management System (TFFMS) Q77:Where do you find personnel strength planning, recruiting, training, and personnel distribution? A:AMD Q78: Which document defines military manpower authorizations allocated to a naval activity? A:POE Q79:Placement is an advocate for________ and detailers are advocates for__________. A:Sailors, Navy Q80:What allows commands to download their AMD? A:TMMCA Q81:Which document provides the present and future enlisted manning of a command? A:EDVRPrimary Professional Military Education 1Customs, Honors, and Traditions 2.1.6Naval Customs 1Proclaimed the Navy Birthday as a day for reflection on Naval Heritage? A:Chief of Naval Operations, Admiral Jay L. Johnson Q82:Why was the song “Anchors Aweigh” written? A:To inspire U.S. Naval Academy midshipmen at an Army-Navy football game in 1906 Q83:What was the objective of the Japanese attack on Midway? A:The Japanese hoped to lure the U.S. Pacific Fleet into a battle where they could destroy it. Q84:What led to the surprise of the Japanese forces which had intended to do the same to the U.S. fleet units? A:Navy intelligence specialists in Hawaii discovered the plan and warned fleet Q85:Which of these statements is true regarding “Anchors Aweigh”? A:It is played today at many athletic events and parades. Q86:T wo days each year are designated specifically to celebrate the U.S. Navy’s heritage. These days are ____. A:Midway Night (about 4 June) and the Navy’s Birthday (13 October) Q87:Why did some Americans oppose the establishment of a Navy? A:All the answers are correct. Q88:Have there been any changes or additions to the original version of “Anchors Aweigh”? A:Midshipman George D. Lottman rewrote the lyrics into their present form so that they could be usable today at a wide range of events. A:Midshipman Royal Lovell wrote a third stanza. Q89:A popular use of the “Navy Hymn” is for the funerals of those who have served in or with the United States Navy. A president whose funeral included this hymn was ____________________. A:Franklin D. Roosevelt Q90:What person or group of people was actually the first to expend funds to obtain services from a sea service in opposing the British military? A:George Washington used funds to contract for several schooners to intercept British supply ships. Q91:In general terms, what did the Continental Navy accomplish during the course of the War of Independence? A:All the answers are correct. Q92:What led to the surprise of the Japanese forces which had intended to do the same to the U.S. fleet units? A:Navy intelligence specialists in Hawaii discovered the plan and warned fleet headquarters. Q93:Midway Night has been observed since 2000. What activities are considered appropriate to commemorate that World War II battle? A:All the answers are correct. Q94:What is the “Navy Hymn’s” connection to the United States Naval Academy? A:The first stanza of the “Navy Hymn” is sung to close each chapel service during Sunday’s Divine Services Q95:Advocates for a Navy in 1775, led by John Adams, proposed that a Navy was necessary for what purpose(s)? A: All the answers are correct Q96:The Battle of Midway is considered important for what reason? A:Until that point, the Japanese Navy was on the offensive and this battle was a major turning point in favor of the United States. Q97:The author of “Anchors Aweigh”, Charles Adam Zimmerman, received what sort of recognition by the midshipmen? A:All the answers are correct. Q98:Why was the date of 13 October selected to celebrate the tradition and history of the naval service?Primary Professional Military Education A:It was on that day in 1775 that the Continental Congress voted to establish a Navy by outfitting two sailing vessels to intercept British transports Q99:Where did the song known as the “Navy Hymn” to United States Navy men and women originate? A:It is one of many compositions by American bandmaster John Philip Sousa. A:A schoolmaster and clergyman of the Church of England wrote the original words around 1860.Primary Professional Military Education Navy Fleets 2.1.7Second and Fourth Fleets 1Navy units operating in the eastern Atlantic during the Second World War ______________. A:All the answers are correct 2The U.S. Navy reorganized its forces in 1922, assigning most of its ships to the Pacific in response to ______________. A:the growing threat that Japan represented 3Completed in 1914, what allowed the U.S. Navy to rapidly transfer ships between the Pacific and Atlantic Oceans? A:The Panama Canal 4The AOR (area of responsibility) of U.S. Fleet Forces Command (USFFC) includes which of the following geographical areas? A:The western portion of the Atlantic Ocean, from the North Pole to the Caribbean, and the Gulf of Mexico. 5During World War II, ______________ numbered fleets were responsible for operations in the Atlantic Ocean. A:Three 6During World War I, ______________ ships were assigned to the Atlantic Fleet. A:nearly all 7The opening of the Panama Canal enabled U.S. warships to transfer between the Atlantic and Pacific oceans ______________. A:In less than 1/3 the time 8What event prompted the United States to declare war on Spain in 1898? A:The sinking of the USS MAINE 9The Atlantic Squadron was reorganized into the Atlantic in early 1941, because ______________. A:Of the possibility of war breaking out in both the Atlantic and Pacific oceans 10U.S. warships enforced the blockade during the 1962 Cuban Missile Crisis by sinking all Soviet-flagged vessels approaching the island. A:False 11Which of the following squadrons has never operated in the area encompassed by the U.S. Navy’s Second Fleet? A:North Africa Squadron 12Among the Navy’s roles during the First World War was ______________. A:All the answers are correct 13Part of us fleet forces command’s mission set is to serve as the naval component of. A:Do not know 14Navy units operating in the eastern Atlantic during WWII: A:All answers are correct 15The Fourth Fleet’s normal area of responsibility (AOR) is within which geographic combatant commander’s AOR? A:USSOUTHCOMPrimary Professional Military Education 2.1.8Fifth Fleet 1The past two decades have seen ______________ in Navy operations conducted in Fifth Fleet’s area of responsibility (AOR). A:an increase 16What failed operation was credited for increasing the emphasis on training for joint operations? A:Operation EAGLE CLAW 17The focus of Operation NEW DAWN will be on conducting ______________ operations. A:Stability 18Over ______________ of the world’s oil reserves are located in the area of responsibility (AOR) of the Fifth Fleet. A:50% 19What role did the U.S. Navy NOT play during Operation IRAQI FREEDOM? A:rescuing hostages 20Navy and Marine aircraft executed almost 80% of the U.S. strikes in Afghanistan during what operation? A:Operation ENDURING FREEDOM 21When was the first massive buildup of U.S. naval forces in the Fifth Fleet’s area of responsibility (AOR)? A:Late 1970’s 22Operation NEW DAWN symbolizes ______________. A:the diminishing role of U.S. forces in Iraq 23About ______________ of the oil exported from Fifth Fleet’s area of responsibility (AOR) transits through the Strait of Hormuz—a vital choke point. A:90% 24How many operational units are permanently assigned to the Fifth Fleet? A:0 25Which fleet is assigned to the smallest area of responsibility (AOR)? A:Fifth Fleet 26The Navy’s Fifth Fleet is part of ______________. A:USCENTCOM 27Which of the following is NOT a choke point found in the Fifth Fleet’s area of responsibility (AOR)? A:Malacca Strait 28Which significant event marked the first massive buildup of U.S. forces in what is now the Fifth Fleet AOR? A:Not soviet invasion of Afghanistan 29Fifth Fleets Headquarters is located in ______? A:Bahrain 30Which Fleet has the smallest AOR? A:5th Fleet 31Operation NEW DAWN is the successor to Operation _______? A:Iraqi FreedomPrimary Professional Military Education 2.1.9Sixth Fleet 1Europe, Africa, and Mediterranean operations in World War I included ______________. A:convoying ships across the Atlantic Ocean 2laying some 60,000 mines A:clearing minefields after the war 3The Sixth Fleet is assigned to ______________. A:Commander, Naval Forces Europe 4NATO’s Supreme Allied Commander, Europe (SACEUR) is dual-hatted as ______________. A:Commander USEUCOM 5The Sixth Fleet received its designation in ______________. A:1950 6A division of U.S. battleships operated as part of the British Grand Fleet during World War I. A:True 7During World War II, the Navy conducted amphibious operations in ______________. A:Sicily A:North Africa A:South Italy 8The Sixth Fleet is headquartered in ______________. A:Naples, Italy 9The Navy’s North Sea Mine Force conducted mine warfare against the German Navy in World War II. A:False 10NATO’s Supreme Allied Commander, Europe (SACEUR) is dual-halted as ______. A:Not sixth Fleet 11Six Fleets area of responsibility encompasses ________. A:The geographic area of USEUCOM and USAFRICOM 12Following the Civil War, ships of Africa Squadron were tasked to suppress __________. A:The Slave Trade 13The Navy’s first overseas installation was established at __________. A:Port Mahon 14Which of the following attributes describe Sixth Fleet’s area of responsibility? (Select all that apply). A:All AnswersPrimary Professional Military Education 2.1.10Pacific Fleet Q100:Since the end of World War II, which of the following operations involved the Seventh Fleet? A:All are correct Q101:During the Civil War, what was the greatest Threat in the Pacific? A:Confederate Commerce Raiders Q102:Which of the following was NOT a result of the Spanish-American War in the Pacific? A:Establishment of NATO Q103:The acquisition of the Philippines was important for the U.S. Navy because it allowed them to __________. A:establish a major operating base and repair facility in the Pacific Q104:The U.S. Navy's presence in what is now the Pacific Fleet dates back to what time era? A:Early 1800's Q105:During the War of 1812, the USS Essex proceeded to capture or destroy fourteen ships belonging to which country? A:Britain Q106:Which of the following was NOT a squadron established after the Civil War? A:East Indies Squadron Q107:Which external force caused the U.S., for the first time, to shift the major weight of American sea power to the pacific? A:The rising Threat of Japan Q108:The AOR of today's Seventh Fleet includes which of the following geographical areas? A:From the international date line to the 68th east meridian, and from the Kuril Islands to the Antarctic. Q109:Where is the headquarters for the U.S. Navy's Third Fleet located? A:San Diego, CA. Q110:In the period between the two World Wars, what was the mission of the U.S. Navy in the Pacific? A:All the answers are correct. Q111:Who were the two primary commanders in the Pacific theater during World War II? A:Admiral Nimitz and General MacArthur Q112:When did the U.S. Navy move the headquarters of the Pacific Fleet from the west coast to Hawaii? A:1940's. Q113:When was the first time the majority of American sea power was assigned to the Pacific? A:1920's Q114:Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning the Battle of Leyte Gulf? A:General MacArthur began his invasion to capture Okinawa Q115:Where is the headquarters for the U.S. Navy's Pacific Fleet located? A:Pearl Harbor, Hawaii.Primary Professional Military Education Customs, Honors, and Traditions 2.1.11Customs and Traditions 1Which of the following (is a)/are title(s) given to those who cross the equator at a significant line of longitude? A:Golden 2The title given to Sailors who have sailed around the southern tip of South America (Cape Horn) is? A:Mossback 3Initiation rites that include hazing are ____________________. A:a violation of SECNAV Instructions 4Among those eligible for burial at sea are ____________________. A:All the answers are correct 5Which of these rules of etiquette apply to conduct within the boat? A:Avoid walking on varnished areas. A:Hands and arms are allowed outside the boat to enjoy the breeze A:A junior officer serving as boat officer when his/her ship is at anchor A:should overrule the decisions of the coxswain only in emergency 6The following certificate denotes Sailors who have crossed the Arctic Circle A:Blue Nose 7Which of the following describes the burial at sea ceremony? A:Three volleys are fired, followed by “Taps”. 8Formal dinners promote A:All the answers are correct 9The Persian Excursion certificate inducts Sailors into which special group? A:Mystic Society of One Thousand and One Nights 10Which statement is an example of proper boat etiquette? A:Juniors board the boat first. 11If all of the following are in a boat, which one is ultimately responsible for its safe operation? A:Surface Warfare Lieutenant 12Sailors who have not crossed the equator are called ____________________. A:Pollywogs 13What event resulted in the shift of the center of the Navy social life from aboard ship to shore? A:Alcohol was banned from U.S. Navy vessels in 1914. 14The oldest of all seafaring traditions is _______. A:the burial at sea 15The Tradition of manning the rails originated __________. A:Not to demonstrate cannons manned 16Frocking was celebrated to have extra pay before actual promotion. A:FalsePrimary Professional Military Education 2.1.12Ships - Customs and Traditions 1Before commissioning, a ship must A:Arrive at its first homeport Q116:Ship launching ceremonies A:began at the dawn of recorded history Q117:Hailing protocols A:are not published in any regulation Q118:The Navy’s battle streamers A:span the period from the Revolutionary War to Kosovo Q119:The christening ceremony includes A:naming of the vessel, knocking supports away so the ship glides into the sea, and then breaking a bottle of champagne across the bow Q120:The U.S. Navy A:was the last service to adopt battle streamers? Q121:The sloop Concord is notable because A:it was the first Navy vessel christened by a woman Q122:While a ship is at anchor or at a pier A:the OOD stands watch on the quarterdeck Q123:What is the tradition of the quarterdeck? A:All the answers are correct Q124:On modern ships, the quarterdeck A:is designated by the Commanding Officer Q125:The “Returning Home Pennant” A:is an extra-long commissioning pennant? Q126:The “Returning Home Pennant” A:is distributed to the Commanding Officer, officers, and crew upon arrival in port Q127:You are standing watch at night as the OOD on board a ship at anchor as a small boat approaches. You call out “Boat ahoy!” and the boat’s coxswain replies, “John Paul Jones!” He is A:announcing that the Captain of the John Paul Jones is on board his boat Q128:All of these activities are forbidden on the quarterdeck EXCEPT A:walking on the port side Q129:Ship christening in the U.S. Navy A:Was first conducted for frigates in the Revolutionary War Q130:All of these actions take place at the commissioning ceremony of a new ship EXCEPT A:the Chief of Naval Operations reads the commissioning directive Q131:Boat hailing protocols became necessary A:in the days prior to WWII, when large ships usually anchored or moored, and boating was required Q132:While on watch, the Officer of the Deck (OOD) A:All the answers are correct Q133:T oday’s “Returning Home Pennant” ____________________. A:All the answers are correct. Q134:Ships in the U.S. Navy ____________________. A:are typically commissioned in public ceremonies with the ship’s sponsor and other prominent guests in attendance Q135:Stars on Navy streamers ____________________. A:follow the practice of a bronze star for each action, and a silver star in lieu of five bronze stars Q136:Battle streamers ______________. A:Commemorate the services of Sailors in the pastPrimary Professional Military Education 2.1.13Honors and Ceremonies 1The most traditional aspect of an official inspection is A:side honors are rendered to the official Q137:There are three national holidays, including ceremonies involving a 21-gun salute at noon, which receive special remembrance by the U.S. Navy. These three are A:Washington’s Birthday, Independence Day, and Memorial Day Q138:Morning and evening colors refers to A:ceremonies in which the national ensign is raised and lowered Q139:The tradition of the shadow box A:dates from the days of sail in the British Navy, wards off bad luck if the person’s shadow were to hit the pier before the person, and includes a ceremonial box to contain things that reflect his/her tour Q140:The highest sign of respect for traveling dignitaries is A:passing honors Q141:Gun salutes are currently offered A:in five second intervals Q142:In which of these circumstances are passing honors rendered? A:A small boat carrying the mayor of the Greek village you are anchored near comes to pay an official visit Q143:What is meant by “dressing ship”? A:Hoisting a display of flags in celebration of a festival Q144:At the end of their careers, all officers may A:All the answers are correct Q145:Half-masting the national ensign A:is a symbol of mourning and respect? Q146:Which of the following is a part of both the morning and evening colors ceremonies? A:All officers and crew face the ensign and salute Q147:Instructions for planning a retirement ceremony are contained in A:MILPERSMAN 1800-010 Q148:Commanding Officer’s orders A:ship’s history Q149:Passing honors are A:All the answers are correct. Q150:The Change of Command Ceremony always includes A:all hands called to quarters, orders read, and statements: “I relieve you, Sir”, and “I stand relieved” Q151:Gun salutes were considered a sign of good faith because ____________________. A:in the days of sail, firing left the ship vulnerable Q152:By custom, gun salutes are returned__________. A:Not only a single gun Q153:Upon the death of a President, the ensign is flown at half-mast for __________ days. A:30 daysPrimary Professional Military Education Ethics and Professionalism for the Warfighter 2.1.14Military Ethics Overview 1The Principle of Utility is A:All of the answers are correct Q154:The Western ethical heritage is descended from ancient Greece, where ethics meant “custom”. T oday, military ethics are derived from our Services’ A:core values and heritage Q155:Thoughts such as: “life has no purpose or meaning”, “truth cannot be known”, and “what I do doesn't matter” best typify which one of the following? A:Nihilism Q156:The idea of absolute truth is not a fundamental tenet of the military concept of “duty A:False Q157:Character-based ethics argues A:right choices come from building good character and pursuing virtue Q158:Lawlessness and looting that often follow the apparent removal of all legitimate authority from an area in the wake of war or national disaster typifies: A:Freedom-based ethics Q159:In the view of the rule-based system of ethics, there is the notion there are absolute truths and moral standards that are true at all times in all places for all people and all situations A:True Q160:A supposition that some mix of common sense and scientific inquiry will always lead to a conclusion that is true typifies A:a reason-based approach to truth and justice Q161:Select the result of ethical failures by military personnel. A:All the answers are correct Q162:Freedom-based ethics focus on A:decisions arrived at based on self-interests or impulses Q163:Aristotelian virtue, stoicism, and VADM Stockdale’s leadership were founded upon the ethical approach of A:character-based ethics Q164:Relativism is a subset of the following ethical system A:Freedom-based ethics Q165:Some relativists would question whether reality can be accurately assessed or measured. A:True Q166:Ethical systems may be generally classified as “freedom-based”, “rule-based”, or A:character-based Q167:An ethical person is A:someone who chooses to live the life people ought to live Q168:Relativism postulates A:All the answers are correct A:The character-based system of ethics argues right choices come from pursuing the “greatest happiness for the greatest number”. A:False Q169:Utilitarianism is sometimes considered to be a subset of __________________. A:consequentialism Q170:Thoughts such as: “I do whatever I want”, “no one can stop me”, and “I take what I want and harm anyone who gets in my way” best typify which one of the following? A:Criminality A:Utilitarianism can best be represented by the following phrase: A:The greatest happiness for the greatest numberPrimary Professional Military Education 2.1.15Ethics in the Profession of Arms 1Is the problematic philosophy of the ethical standard of “doing what is best for me”; it does nothing to preclude evil. A:Egoism 2Moral development is a life-long process, with the objective of achieving moral A:Effectiveness 3Which one(s) of the following constitute(s) the body of moral principles or values governing military professionals? A:All the answers are correct. 4Moral development theory tells us that there are sequential levels of moral reasoning. What is the ideal toward which moral development leads? A:It is the path to becoming a person of character. 5Well-developed knowledge, abilities, and values in which of the following is NOT necessary for effective moral development? A:Moral relativism 6Moral ____________________ is the ability to recognize when a problem is not merely a narrow, technical dilemma that lends itself merely to a narrow, technical solution, but rather is one with some richer moral content. A:Awareness 7Is a common bond all military professionals share based on the mutual accountability that comes with self-regulation? A:corporatizes 8A military professional must utilize any means necessary to contribute to the common good. A:False 9Even with moral awareness, moral reasoning, and moral courage, is it still possible to act ineffectively? A:True 10What differentiates a mercenary from a military professional? A:The military professional exhibits a moral dimension earning the trust of society. 11The ability, right, and ____________________ of self-regulation are part of what transforms an association into a profession A:responsibility 12Moral ____________________ is the willingness and desire of an individual resulting in the execution of what he or she has determined (through knowledge, instinct and/or reasoning) is the “right thing to do”, regardless of difficulty A:courage 13An expert with specialized knowledge and skill in a significant field of human endeavor” best defines A:a professional 14Moral ____________________ enables a person to work through a logical and objective process for determining and articulating reasons that distinguish right from wrong. A:Reasoning 15Moral development requires certain conditions to occur; people must be morally A:All the answers are correct 16The key distinction(s) between a profession, craft, and art, is/are A:All the answers are correct 17An officer has the obligation to exercise responsibility and be concerned with anything that might impact all of the following, EXCEPT A:personal recognition and remuneration 18Which statement is NOT true regarding the professional responsibilities of military professionals? A:A military professional does not have an obligation with regards to influences on material and resource management 19A key component of professional responsibility is A:accountabilityPrimary Professional Military Education 20Which of the following are the three recognized characteristics of all professions? A:Expertise, responsibility, and corporatizes 21__________ permits a military leader to exercise the ordered use of force to achieve a desired political objective that serves the nation at large A:Expertise 22Moral ____________________ is the comprehensive ability to bring together all of one’s knowledge, skills, and values in order to accomplish the intended action. A:Effectiveness 23Extensive knowledge of right and wrong and sophisticated moral reasoning skills will necessarily lead to moral behavior. A:FalsePrimary Professional Military Education 2.1.16Ethics and the Warfighter 1In addition to granting prisoners of war certain rights, the Geneva Convention obligates prisoners of war to act in certain ways. Which of the following is NOT true regarding these obligations? A:A prisoner is permitted to aid others in their attempt to escape. 2The Geneva Convention allows escape attempts by prisoners of war to be punishable by death if a guard is killed. A:The Geneva Convention forbids prisoners of war from attempting escape 3A demonstration of moral courage is indicative of the ability to demonstrate physical courage, and vice-versa. A:False 4____________ is the good personal character and reputation of honesty and loyalty. A:Honor 5Which philosopher’s proposed system of ethics is most closely associated with the Navy’s Core Values? A:Aristotle: “Nicomachean Ethics” 6Is/are a duty-bound standard of performance to be adhered to, even in the most difficult circumstances. A:The Code of Conduct 7The Geneva Convention provides legal protection for A:Prisoners of War 8Which one(s) of the following allow(s) for judicial penalties after repatriation for misdeeds committed while a prisoner of war? A:The Uniform Code of Military Justice 9Which of the following is NOT a precept upon which the Code of Conduct is based? A:Truth is relative 10The Code of Conduct was created due to the failure of American service members to escape and due to their contributions to the enemy’s propaganda effort during which conflict? A:The Korean War 11The Code of Conduct only applies if the detaining country adheres to the Geneva Convention. A:False A:I will bear true faith and allegiance”. A:“I will obey the orders of the President of the United States and the orders of the officers appointed over me, according to regulations and the Uniform Code of Military Justice”. A:“I will support and defend the Constitution of the United States against all enemies, foreign and domestic”. A:Honor, Commitment, Courage 12In addition to granting prisoners of war certain rights, the Geneva Convention obligates prisoners of war to act in certain ways. Which of the following is NOT true regarding these obligations? A:The Geneva Convention forbids prisoners of war from attempting escape 13The Oath of Enlistment is significant in the Profession of Arms because it A:clearly states a Sailor’s duty from the moment of enlistment 14The Oath of Enlistment is clear regarding the hierarchy of loyalties. Which of the following best demonstrates this priority (highest to lowest)? A:Ship, shipmate, self 15In the process of inspiring confidence in a team, a leader may need to manage the team’s perceptions of who the leader is, to the point of hiding certain information; perception management may be a legitimate goal. A:True 16Which of the following, if not resolved prior to being presented with an ethical challenge, poses a risk to choosing the proper course of action in accordance with the Oath of Enlistment? A:LoyaltyPrimary Professional Military Education 17When a Sailor is presented with a potential or real conflict between honesty and loyalty, which of the two is more important? A:This is an ethical dilemma which cannot be resolved without amplifying information and/or context. 18The primary assertion of Aristotle’s “Nicomachean Ethics” is A:characteristics develop from corresponding activities Q171:Regarding interrogation under the terms of the Geneva Convention, which one(s) of the following is/are true? A:The detaining power has the right to interrogate a prisoner of war. 19Which of the following statements is NOT part of the Code of Conduct? A:I will not try to escape, nor aid others in their attempt to escape. 20What value must be balanced by a healthy sense of commitment so that a team sees its contribution to the overall mission, but the individuals of the team do not think of themselves as indispensable links to mission accomplishment? A:Responsibility 21Which of the following is NOT a right of prisoners of war under the Geneva Convention? A:The right of enlisted personnel to refuse to perform paid labor 22Which of the following is NOT true regarding professional oaths? A:A professional oath allows for value judgments to be based on relative truths 23Is the state of being involved in an obligation and provides the wherewithal to continue in a task to the realization of its completion? A:Commitment 24____________________ is the value that gives us the moral and mental strength to do what is right, with confidence and resolution, even in the face of personal or professional temptation or adversity. A:CouragePrimary Professional Military Education 2.1.17The Just War Tradition 1The jus ad bellum criterion of just cause has traditionally included A:self-defense and defense of an innocent third party under attack 2The notion that a just war may be morally preferable to an unjust peace can be traced back __________. A:more than 1600 years 3While the moral burden of jus in Bello falls primarily on military leaders, political leaders often play a key role in establishing targeting policy, approving specific targets, and developing rules of engagement. A:True 4The jus ad bellum criterion of last resort requires ____________________. A:that all reasonable non-violent options be explored before using military force 5Key principles of the jus in Bello are proportionality and ____________________. A:discrimination 6In order for a war to be considered just, it must meet a majority of the criteria of jus ad bellum. A:False 7The jus ad bellum criterion of proper authority limits the decision-making authority to go to war to the most senior military commanders. A:False 8The moral principles of the Just War Tradition ____________________. A:help to set the military professional apart 9Jus in Bello relates to ____________________. A:the legality of the actual conduct of hostilities 10Jus ad bellum relates to ____________________. A:the justification for resorting to war 11The Just War Tradition is the informal name of the Laws of Armed Conflict. A:False 12Jus ad bellum and jus in Bello govern all aspects of war. A:True 13The jus in Bello principle of discrimination requires that ____________________. A:non-combatants not be the direct object of attack 14The following military personnel are considered to be non-combatants: A:Chaplains and medical personnel 15The proportionality principle of jus in Bello requires ____________________. A:That the harm done to civilians and non-combatants in a military operation not outweigh the good accomplished by the operation 16The moral burden of jus ad bellum falls primarily on ____________________. A:political leaders 17The jus ad bellum criterion of probability of success requires A:reasonable hope of accomplishing the intended good 18All members of the U.S. military are bound by the Law of Armed Conflict and the Geneva Conventions. A:True 19The just war tradition incorporates historical principles of ____________________. A:theology, philosophy, and law 20The two-key criteria jus in Bello criteria are ______________. A:Discrimination and proportionality 21Jus ad Bellum permits a nation to conceal its real reasons for going to war in order to gain an advantage over its enemy. A:False