(Test Bank) Bsn 1004 Evolve + Test Bank Combined Questions And Answers

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Questions 1. 1.ID: 18651642876 Which of the following is a characteristic of a malignant tumour? A. It is encapsulated. B. It will not invade local tissues. C. It is well differentiated. D. It can spread far from the tissue of origin. Correct Malignant tumours have no capsule, which allows them to spread readily. They have rapid growth rates and specific microscopic alterations. They are poorly differentiated and spread to distant tissues. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 2. 2.ID: 18651642868 Cancer of the connective tissue is referred to as which of the following? A. Sarcoma Correct Sarcoma is a cancer of mesenchymal tissue (including connective tissue, muscle, and bone). Carcinoma is a cancer of epithelial tissue. Leukemia is a cancer of blood- forming cells. Lymphoma is a cancer of lymphatic tissue. B. Leukemia C. Lymphoma D. Carcinoma Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 3. 3.ID: 18651642874 A cancerous tumour that is very poorly differentiated is referred to using which following term? A. Pleomorphic B. Anaplasia Correct Anaplasia means the absence of differentiation. Pleomorphic describes anaplastic cells of varying size and shape. Immortal refers to a cancerous cell’s ability to live indefinitely. Independent refers to the cancerous cell’s independence from normal cell controls. C. Immortal D. Independent Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 4. 4.ID: 18651642864 Which of the following is the serum marker used to evaluate a tumour of the adrenal gland? A. PSA B. AFP C. Catecholamines Correct Catecholamines are secreted by the adrenal medulla and are found in excess if there is a tumour. PSA is the prostate- specific antigen and is used to detect prostate cancer. AFP is alpha fetoprotein and is used to detect liver and germ cell cancers. DNA is the genetic material in cells, not a serum marker. D. DNA Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 5. 5.ID: 18651642860 Which gene in its normal state negatively regulates cell proliferation? A. Oncogenes B. Tumour -suppressor genes Correct Tumour -suppressor genes encode proteins that in their normal state negatively regulate proliferation. Oncogenes are mutant genes that in their normal nonmutant state direct synthesis of protein t hat positively accelerates proliferation. Telomeres are protective ends, or caps, on each chromosome. Proto- oncogene is an oncogene in its nonmutant state. C. Proto -oncogenes D. Telomeres Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 6. 6.ID: 18651642866 A mutation that occurs due to changes in nucleotide base pairs is described as which of the following? A. Point mutation Correct Point mutations are small changes in one or a few nucleotides. Translocations occur when a piece of one chromosome translocates to another chromosome. Gene amplification can result in duplication of a small piece of a chromosome over and over again. Pleomorphic describes anaplastic cells. B. Translocation C. Gene amplification D. Pleomorphic Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 7. 7.ID: 18651642862 The process whereby tumour cells generate their own blood supply is referred to as which of the following? A. Carcinogenesis B. Angiogenesis Correct Angiogenesis is the generation of new blood vessels. Thrombospondin is a protein that inhibits the growth of new blood cells. Carcinogenesis is the development of cancerous cells. Transforming growth factor is a proangiogenic factor (aids in the development of blood vessels). C. Transforming growth factor D. Thrombospondin Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 8. 8.ID: 18651642878 Genomic instability refers to which of the following? A. A decreased ability to mutate during the metaphase of the cell life cycle B. Increased tendency for genome alterations and mutability during cell life cycles Correct Genomic instability refers to an increased tendency of alteration mutability in the genome during the life cycle of cells. Inherited and acquired mutations in caretaker genes that protect the integrity of the genome and DNA repair increase the level of genomic instability and risk for developing cancer. C. Genetic weaknesses predispose the development of solid tumours D. Absence of tumour suppression cells that result in excessive cell proliferation Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 9. 9.ID: 18651642870 When a patient is diagnosed with a benign tumour, the tumour most likely has which of the following features? (Select all that apply.) A. Well encapsulated Correct B. Well differentiated Correct C. Absence of normal tissue D. Spreading to regional lymph nodes E. Generally resistant to treatment modalities Benign tumours are well encapsulated and well differentiated, but actually do retain some normal tissue. They do not spread to regional lymph nodes, nor are they generally resistant to treatment. Awarded 0.0 points out of 2.0 possible points. 10. 10. ID: 18651642872 Research has shown a connection between the development of cancer and which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A. Epstein- Barr virus Correct B. Hepatitis B virus Correct C. Hepatitis C virus Correct D. Hepatitis A virus E. Human papillomavirus Correct Hepatitis B and hepatitis C have been linked to the development of liver cancer, usually due to chronic inflammation. Epstein -Barr virus can lead to B -cell lymphomas in those patients who are immunosuppressed. Human papillomavirus has been linked to cervical, anogenital, and penile cancers. Research has not shown a link between cancer and the hepatitis A virus. Awarded 0.0 points out of 4.0 possible points. 1. 1. ID: 18651628781 Which of the following is true in relation to tobacco smoking? A. It is responsible for 10% of all cancer deaths in developed countries. B. It is associated with the upper digestive tract and lower urinary tract carcinomas. Correct Tobacco smoking is responsible for cancers of the lung; upper aerodigestive tract (oral cavity, pharynx, larynx, nasal cavity, paranasal sinuses, esophagus, and stomach); lower urinary tract (renal pelvis, penis, and bladder); kidney; pancreas; cervix; and uterus, as well as acute myeloid leukemia. It also causes damage to blood vessels and a number of other diseases. It causes 6 million deaths a year worldwide. I t is responsible for approximately 25% of cancer deaths. C. It is dangerous primarily to sensitive bronchial lung tissue. D. IT is responsible for 10 000 deaths a year worldwide. Which of the following is TRUE regarding ultraviolet light? E. It induces the tumour necrosis factor. Correct Ultraviolet light induces tumour necrosis factor. The duration, intensity, and wavelength content all affect exposure. It can cause the formation of basal cell and squamous cell carcinomas. Ozone depletion is inc reasing the intensity of exposure. F. Damage is not affected by wavelength. G. It causes the formation of sarcomas. H. Exposure has little effect on ozone depletion. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 2. 3.ID: 18651628787 When a patient has been diagnosed with a basal cell carcinoma, which one of the following is most likely correct? A. The lesion is most likely found on the patient’s trunk. B. The patient is likely dark skinned and brown eyed. C. The patient has rarely experienced sunburns. D. The le sion is most likely found on the head and neck. Correct Basal cell carcinoma is typically found on sun- exposed areas in those with fair complexions. The patients often have light hair and eyes, and they tend to sunburn vs. tan. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 3. 4.ID: 18651628777 Which of the following is most likely true regarding a female patient who is diagnosed with melanoma? A. The patient is experiencing a lesion on the back of the legs. Correct Melanoma is often found on the skin on the head, the neck, between the shoulders, and the hips in men. In women, it is more commonly found on the skin of the lower legs, between the shoulders, and on the hips. The mortality rate is 2 to 3%. White people get melanoma 10 times as often as black, Lati n American, or Asian people. Those affected are often fair skinned and unable to tan. They develop nevi easily or freckle. B. The patient is of Asian descent. C. The patient is able to tan well. D. The patient is experiencing a high mortality risk factor. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 4. 5.ID: 18651628779 Long- term exposure to asbestos is most likely to result in the development of cancer of which of the following? A. Bladder B. Kidney C. Stomach D. Lung Correct Asbestos increases the risk for mesothelioma and lung cancer and possibly other cancers. Research has not shown a strong link between asbestos exposure and the remaining cancers. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 5. 6.ID: 18651628793 Consuming which of the following foods increases the risk of colorectal cancer? A. Red meat Correct Individuals who consume diets high in red meat and processed meat, and who carry certain genetic polymorphisms, have an increased risk of developing colorectal cancer. Diets high i n isothiocyanates (from cruciferous vegetables) may decrease the risk of cancer. B. Red cabbage C. Olive oil D. Rice Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 6. 7.ID: 18651628783 Exposure to arsenic increases the risk for developing cancer in which of the following organs? A. Bladder Correct There is increased risk for bladder, skin, and lung cancers following consumption of water with high levels of arsenic (generally greater than 200 mcg/L). Evidence for cancers of the liver, colon, and kidney is weaker. There is no evidence that arsenic increases the risk of cancer of breast, skin, or gall bladder. B. Breast C. Skin D. Gall bladder Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 7. 8.ID: 18651628795 Excessive alcohol consumption is connected with cancer of which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A. Oral cavity Correct B. Larynx Correct C. Spleen D. Liver Correct E. Esophagus Correct Overall, there are strong data linking alcohol with cancers of the mouth, pharynx, larynx, esophagus, liver, colorectum, and breast. Awarded 0.0 points out of 4.0 possible points. 8. 9.ID: 18651628785 The use of vaccines for which of the following conditions may decrease the risk of cancer? (Select all that apply.) A. Hepatitis B Correct B. Human papillomavirus (HPV) Correct C. HIV D. Helicobacter pylori E. Hepatitis C Correct Certain vaccines can help reduce the risk for some infections associated with cancer (e.g., human papillomavirus and hepatitis B and C). There is no vaccine for HIV or H. pylori . Awarded 0.0 points out of 3.0 possible points. 9. 10. ID: 18651628789 Which cancers are linked to obesity and a higher risk of death? (Select all that apply.) A. Esophageal Correct B. Stomach Correct C. Colorectal Correct D. Brain E. Thyroid The following cancers have all been linked to obesity and higher rates of death: esophageal, stomach, colorectal, liver, breast, gallbladder, pancreatic, prostate, kidney, ovarian, lymphoma, cervical, and leukemia. Research has not found a strong link between obesity and a higher risk of death with brain and thyroid cancers. Awarded 0.0 points out of 3.0 possible points. Questions 1. 1.ID: 18651631936 Which of the following statements is MOST TRUE in relation to childhood cancers? A. They originate immediately after birth. B. They affect the tissues in the brain. C. They originate from the mesodermal germ layer. Correct Most childhood cancers originate from the mesodermal germ layer, which develops into connective tissue, bone, cartilage, muscle, blood, blood vessels, gonads, kidney, and the lymphatic system. Thus, the more common childhood cancers are leukemias, sarcomas, and embryonic tumours. D. They result in extensive forms of lung cancer. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 2. 2.ID: 18651631934 A childhood embryonic tumour MOST LIKELY includes which of the following? A. Mature cells B. Undifferentiated cells Correct They contain cells that are not well differentiated, immature cells. This means they are unable to mature or differentiate into fully developed functional cells. Carcinoma cells are cancer cells that may or may not be present in such tumours. C. Carcinoma cells D. Functional cells Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 3. 3.ID: 18651631932 The most common malignancy in children is which of the following? A. Leukemia Correct Leukemia is by far the most common malignancy in children. Malignancies occur in the nervous system, kidneys, and soft tissue, but are rare. B. In the nervous system C. In the kidney D. In soft tissue Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 4. 4.ID: 18651631942 Which of the following viruses has been linked with the development of cancer? A. Measles B. Epstein- Barr Correct Epstein -Barr has been linked with the development of Burkitt lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma, and Hodgkin disease. While viruses may play a role in the development of cancer, measles, mumps, and influenza are not linked by evidence to known childhood cancers. C. Mumps D. Influenza Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 5. 5.ID: 18651631940 The current belief is that the survival rates for childhood cancer survivors have improved due to which of the following measures? A. Screening for such cancers has become more sensitive. B. The use of multimodal treatment. Correct Improved cancer survival for children includes the use of combination chemotherapy or multimodal treatment for solid childhood tumours and improvements in nursing and supportive care. The development of research centres for co mprehensive childhood cancer treatment and cooperative study groups also have facilitated refinements in treatment protocols and data sharing, leading to improved survival rates. C. Radiology has become a viable treatment modality. D. The general health of c hildren has improved over the last century. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 6. 6.ID: 18651631948 Which of the following children should be monitored closely for the symptomatology of leukemia? A. 2-year-old diagnosed with Down syndrome Correct Children with Down syndrome are at increased risk for developing leukemia. Currently, there is no research to support a connection between the other conditions and the development of leukemia. B. 18-month- old with a heart valve defect C. 3-year-old w ith a congenital bone disorder D. 8-month -old with a cleft lip and cleft palate Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 7. 7.ID: 18651631950 The first risk factor to be considered when a child is diagnosed with a carcinoma is which of the following? A. Prenatal exposure Correct Very few environmental and lifestyle factors have been linked to pediatric malignancies. More data are emerging that the developing child may be affected by epigenetic modifications resulting from parental exposures before conception, exposures in utero, and nutrition during early life. B. The presence of an autoimmune disorder C. Exposure to an environmental toxin D. A recent viral illness Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 8. 8.ID: 18651631938 Which form of childhood cancer is a child who is receiving immunosuppressive therapy after a lung transplant at most risk for developing? A. Leukemia B. Lymphoma Correct Immunosuppressive agents increase the child’s risk for developing lymphoma during childhood. This risk is not associated with the remaining options. C. Hepatocellular carcinoma D. Neuroblastoma Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 9. 9.ID: 18651631946 Which statement is correct when considering where a childhood tumour is most likely to develop? A. Lungs B. Kidneys C. Brain Correct The most common type of childhood cancer is leukemia, and the second most common type of pediatric malignancy is a tumour involving the brain or central nervous system. D. Skin Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 10. 10.ID: 18651631944 A survivor of a childhood cancer is at risk for developing a cancer later in life related to which of the following factors? (Select all that apply.) A. Being under 2 years of age when original cancer occurred B. Receiving chemotherapy for the original cancer Correct C. Having a family history of the original cancer Correct D. Receiving radiation for the original cancer Correct E. An original cancer being a soft tissue sarcoma Correct This risk may be associated with a variety of factors, including previous chemotherapy or radiotherapy, genetic factors, and type of primary cancer (e.g., soft tissue sarcoma, neuroblastoma). Currently, there is no known risk associated specifically with age. Awarded 0.0 points out of 4.0 possible points. Questions 1. 1.ID: 18651645822 The central nervous system contains which of the following? A. Brain Correct The brain is part of the central nervous system, while the remaining structures are contained in the peripheral nervous system. B. Somatic nervous system C. Afferent pathways D. Cranial nerves Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 2. 2.ID: 18651645846 Which of the following is composed of endoplasmic reticulum and ribosomes? A. Nissl substances Correct The Nissl substances, endoplasmic reticulum and ribosomes, are involved in protein synthesis. Microfilaments are composed of structural proteins and responsible for support. The dendrites are extensions that carry nerve impulses toward t he cell body. Microtubules are involved in the transport of cellular products. B. Dendrities C. Microfilaments D. Microtubules Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 3. 3.ID: 18651645834 Which is an insulating substance for the neuron? A. Schwann cells B. Myelin Correct Myelin is an insulating substance. Schwann and neuroglial cells provide structural support and nutrition for the neurons. The nodes of Ranvier are interruptions at regular intervals that occur in the myelin. C. Neuroglial cells D. Nodes of Ranvier Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 4. 4.ID: 18651645824 Successive, rapid impulses received from a single neuron on the same synapse are best described as which of the following? A. Temporal summation Correct Temporal summation refers to the effects of successive, rapid impulses received from a single neuron on the same synapse. Spatial summation refers to the combined effect of impulses from a number of neurons on a single synapse at the same time. Facilitation refers to the effects of excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) on the plasma membrane potential. Actuation is not a process that relates to neural impulse transmission. B. Spatial summation C. Actuation D. Facilitation Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 5. 5.ID: 18651645830 The midbrain contains which of the following? A. Cerebral hemisphere B. Tegmentum Correct The tegmentum, corpora quadrigemina, and basis pedunculi are all part of the midbrain. The cerebral hemispheres are part of the forebrain. The brainstem is composed of the midbrain, medulla oblongata, and pons. The cerebellum is located in the hindbrain. C. Cerebellum D. Medulla oblongata Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 6. 6.ID: 18651645840 Which part of the brain contains all cell bodies and dendrites of neurons? A. Gyri B. Sulci C. White matter D. Grey matter Correct The grey matter contains cell bodies and dendrites of neurons. The white matter contains myelinated nerve fibres. The gyri are the convolutions of the cerebrum. The sulci are the grooves between adjacent gyri. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 7. 7.ID: 18651645838 Which of the following is true related to the Broca speech area? A. It makes receptive responses possible. B. It is responsible for motor speech. Correct The Broca area is found on the left and is responsible for motor speech. Deficits in this area result in the inability to form words, also called expressive or motor aphasia. Hearing and receptive responding are not influenced by the Broca area. C. When it is traumatized, this results in the inability to hear. D. It is found in the right cerebral hemisphere. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 8. 8.ID: 18651645836 Which is a function of the thalamus? A. Major integrating centre for afferent impulse Correct The thalamus is a major integrating centre for afferent impulses. Maintenance of the internal environment is a function of the hypothalamus. Voluntary visual motor movements are controlled by the superior col liculi. Movements of the auditory system are accomplished by the inferior colliculi. B. Maintenance of internal environment C. Voluntary visual motor movements D. Movements of the auditory system Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 9. 9.ID: 18651645844 The cerebellum does which of the following? A. It makes up the fibres of the corticospinal tract. B. It maintains balance or posture. Correct The cerebellum is responsible for balance and posture and conscious and unconscious muscle synergy. The pons controls respirations and is the location of cranial nerves V through VIII. The fibres of the corticospinal tract are made up in the basis pedunculi. C. It controls respiration. D. It contains cranial nerves V through VIII. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 10. 10.ID: 18651645842 Which structure is involved in pain transmission? A. Posterior horn B. Substantia gelatinosa Correct The substantia gelatinosa is a structure involved in pain transmission. The anterior or ventral horn contains nerve cell bodies for efferent pathways leaving the spinal cord. The posterior horn (dorsal horn) is composed primarily of interneurons and axons from sensory neurons. The dorsal root ganglion is part of the sensory ganglion. C. Anterior horn D. Dorsal root ganglia Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 11. 11.ID: 18651645848 Which of the following is the neurotransmitter that is released from the postganglionic parasympathetic axon terminal? A. Acetylcholine Correct Both the pre- and postganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system release acetylcholine. The preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system release acetylcholine, while the postganglionic neurons release norepinephrine. Dopamine is produced by the hypothalamus. Preganglionic sympathetic fibres cause the rapid release of epinephrine. B. Epinephrine C. Norepinephrine D. Dopamine Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 12. 12.ID: 18651645850 Which is a characteristic of Wallerian degeneration? (Select all that apply.) A. Swelling Correct B. Neurofilamental atrophy C. Myelin sheath shrinkage Correct D. Axon portion degeneration Correct E. Overproduction of axons The neurofilaments actually hypertrophy, and there is degeneration of axons distal to an injury. The other choices are all characteristic of Wallerian degeneration. Awarded 0.0 points out of 3.0 possible points. 13. 13.ID: 18651645826 The major divisions of the brain include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A. Forebrain Correct B. Cerebrum C. Midbrain Correct D. Hindbrain Correct E. Brainstem The three main divisions of the brain are forebrain, midbrain, and hindbrain. The cerebral hemispheres are a portion of the forebrain. The brainstem is a component of the midbrain. Awarded 0.0 points out of 3.0 possible points. 14. 14. ID: 18651645832 When a patient experiences a brain injury and the medulla oblongata is affected, a patient will most likely experience which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A. Changes in heart rate Correct B. Alterations in respirations Correct C. Altered blood pressure Correct D. Alterations in balance and posture E. Problems in swallowing Correct The medulla is responsible for heart rate, respiration, blood pressure, coughing, sneezing, swallowing, and vomiting. The cerebellum is responsible for balance and posture. Awarded 0.0 points out of 4.0 possible points. 15. 15. ID: 18651645828 The meninges surrounding the brain comprise which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A. Dura mater Correct B. Anterior fossa C. Pia mater Correct D. Endosteal layer E. Anterior horn The meninges are the dura mater, arachnoid, and the pia mater. The endosteal layer is part of the dura mater. The anterior fossa is the location where the frontal lobe lies. The anterior or ventral horn contains nerve cell bodies for efferent pathways leaving the spinal cord. Awarded 0.0 points out of 2.0 possible points. 1. 1.ID: 18651633504 Which of the following is TRUE related to the specificity theory of pain? A. It focuses on the attention of pain. B. It focuses on previous experience of pain. C. It relates the amount of pain to the amount of tissue injury. Correct The specificity theory of pain postulates that the intensity of pain is directly rel ated to the amount of associated tissue injury. It does not take into account previous experience, emotions, or attention to pain. D. It relates to the emotions exhibited toward pain. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 2. 2.ID: 18651633508 Which pair of structures regulates the complex emotional responses to pain? A. Frontal and cerebellar lobes B. Limbic and reticular system Correct The reticular and limbic systems regulate what we feel about pain. The remaining structures are not involved. C. Thalamus and brainstem D. Midbrain and nuclei of thalamus Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 3. 3.ID: 18651633522 Which activity has been documented to increase the levels of circulating endogenous endorphins? A. Cough B. Stress Correct Stress, sexual intercourse, acupuncture, and excessive physical exertion have all been linked to increased levels of circulating endorphins. Drinking behaviour and cough are actually moderated by endorphins. Sleep and pain are not linked with exces sive amounts of endorphins. C. Sleep D. Pain Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 4. 4.ID: 18651633506 Perceptual dominance is defined as which of the following? A. The duration of time or intensity of pain before overt pain responses are initiated. B. Pain at one location that may cause an increase in threshold at another location. Correct Perceptual dominance is pain at one location that may cause an increase in threshold at another location. For example, when a patient has severe pain in his leg, he may not feel neck pain. Pain tolerance is the duration of time or intensity of pain before overt pain responses are initiated. Repeated exposure to pain usually decreases pain tolerance. The pain threshold is the point at which pain is perceived. C. Repeated exposure to a pain stimulus. D. The point at which pain is perceived. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 5. 5.ID: 18651633510 The appropriate term for pain that is present in an area distant from its point of origin is which of the following? A. Acute pain B. Chronic pain C. Referred pain Correct Referred pain is pain that is present in an area removed or distant from its point of origin. Chronic pain is usually prolonged, lasting at least 3 months. Somatic pain arises from connective tissue, muscle, bone, and skin. It is may be sharp and well organized or dull, aching, and poorly localized. Acute pain arises from cutaneous, deep somatic, or visceral structures and is a protective mechanism. D. Somatic pain Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 6. 6.ID: 18651633198 Which mechanism does not result in heat loss? A. Increased respiration B. Conduction C. Convection D. Vasoconstriction Correct Vasoconstriction is a mechanism of heat conservation. Increased respiration, conduction, and convection are all mechanisms of heat loss. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 7. 7. ID: 18651633526 A benefit of fever to human blood includes which of the following? A. Decreased lymphocytic transformation B. Diminished phagocytosis C. Increased iron concentration D. A switch to lipolysis and proteolysis Correct Fever has benefits. The higher body temperature decreases serum levels of iron, zinc, and copper, all of which are needed for bacterial replication. It switches from burning glucose to lipolysis and proteolysis, thus depriving bacteria of a food source. There is increased lymphocytic transformation, increasing the immune response. Increased phagocytosis also occurs. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 8. 8. ID: 18651633500 A patient who was outside on a summer day and is now experiencing increased sweating and thirst, weakness, and dizziness is exhibiting signs of which of the following? A. Heat cramps B. Heat exhaustion Correct Heat exhaustion is the result of prolonged high core temperatures. There is often dehydration, feelings of weakness, dizziness, nausea, and fainting. Heat cramps are severe, spasmodic cramps in the abdomen and the extremities that follow prolonged sweating and associated sodium loss. Heat stroke may be lethal and is caused by exposure to excessive heat and loss of the body’s protective mechanisms for cooling. Malignant hyperthermia is a lethal complication of a rare inherited muscle disorder. C. Hyperthermic stroke D. Malignant hyperthermia Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 9. 9.ID: 18651633516 An obese male presents to a sleep clinic with symptoms of difficulty sleeping. He reports that he wakes gasping for air. Which is the most likely diagnosis for this patient? A. Primary hypersomnia B. Parasomnia C. Somnambulism D. Obstructive sleep apnea Correct Obstructive sleep apnea is due to upper airway obstruction and is accompanied by excessive snoring and episodic apnea. Primary hypersomnia is ex cessive daytime sleepiness. Parasomnia is unusual behaviour during sleep. Somnambulism is sleepwalking. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 10. 10. ID: 18651633514 Involuntary unilateral or bilateral rhythmic movement of the eyes is referred to as which of the following? A. Nystagmus Correct Nystagmus may be present when at rest or when the eyes move. Amblyopia is reduced vision in an eye secondary to uncorrected strabismus. Strabismus is when one eye deviates from the other when a person is looking at an object. Glaucoma is increased intraocular pressure. B. Amblyopia C. Glaucoma D. Strabismus Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 11. 11.ID: 18651633518 A young child presents with redness of the eyes. The parents indicate that this condition seems to be “going around” the daycare. Which is the most likely diagnosis? A. Blepharitis B. Keratitis C. Trachoma D. Conjunctivitis Correct Acute bacterial conjunctivitis, or pinkeye, is a highly contagious bacterial infection. Blepharitis is an inflammation of eyelids. Keratitis is an infection of the cornea. Trachoma is a bacterial infection caused by poor hygiene and is the leading cause of preventable blindness. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 12. 12. ID: 18651633502 Which type of hearing loss is a result of foreign body obstruction of the middle ear? A. Conductive Correct Conductive hearing loss occurs when a change in the outer or middle ear, such as a foreign body lodged in the ear canal, impairs conduction of the sound from the outer to inner ear. Sensorineural hearing loss is caused by impairment of the organ of Corti or its central connections. Presbycusis is a form of sensorineural hearing loss usually seen in elderly people. Functional hearing loss is believed to be caused by emotional or psychological factors. B. Sensorineural C. Functional D. Presbycusis Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 13. 13.ID: 18651633512 A patient who reports that “everything tastes unpleasant” is exhibiting symptoms of which of the following? A. Hyposmia B. Anosmia C. Hypogeusia D. Dysgeusia Correct Dysgeusia is a perversion of taste in which everything has an unpleasant flavour. Hyposmia is an impaired sense of smell. Anosmia is a complete loss of smell. Hypogeusia is a decrease in taste sensation. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 14. 14.ID: 18651633520 Endogenous opioids include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A. Enkephalins Correct B. Endorphins Correct C. Dynorphins Correct D. Endomorphins Correct E. Denkephalins The four types of endogenous opioids include enkephalins, endorphins, dynorphins, and endomorphins. Denkephalins are not endogenous opioids. Awarded 0.0 points out of 4.0 possible points. 15. 15. ID: 18651633524 The classification of acute pain includes which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A. Acute visceral Correct B. Pleuritic C. Referred Correct D. Acute somatic Correct E. Cutaneous Correct Pleuritic pain is described in terms of pulmonary function, not in general classification of pain. Acute pain arises from cutaneous, deep somatic, or visceral structures; these include acute visceral, acute somatic, and referred. Awarded 0.0 points out of 4.0 possible points. 1. 1. ID: 18651630249 Which of the following is correct in relation to Cheyne- Stokes respirations (CSR)? A. It involves an abnormal pattern of crescendo- decrescendo. Correct Increases in PaCO 2 levels lead to tachypnea. The PaCO 2 level then decreases to below normal and breathing stops (apnea) until the carbon dioxide reaccumulates and again stimulates tachypnea. Changes in PaCO 2 produce irregular breathing, not changes in PaO 2. The PaCO 2 level decreases to below normal when overbreathing occurs. B. It results in hypocapnia and increased ventilatory stimulus. C. It causes changes in PaO 2 that produce irregular breathing. D. It increases PaCO 2 level when overbreathing occurs. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.